To bring an individuals Cisco 400-101 quiz information and abilities to a desired place, you will must take 400-101 instruction. Important quantities of their time and cash enter 400-101 training course instruction. As is also the truth with a lot of people, confined price range and zero cost hours will not lets subscribe to Cisco 400-101 quiz in-class instruction. So, many of the 400-101 prospects tend to be looking for 400-101 research guides and also other 400-101 personal knowing assets. As well as Cisco 400-101 e-learning items such as apply examine, questions and answers, 400-101 research guides, etcetera. currently have confirmed their selves not that will awful associated with a work.

2021 Mar 400-101 exam guide

Q361. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.) 

A. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDP port 49152. 

B. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernet0/0. 

C. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data. 

D. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0. 

E. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port 49152. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

The “ip flow-export destination 209.165.200.227 49152” command specifies that the data export destination server is 209.165.200.227 using UDP port 49152. 

The “ip route-cache flow” command under the fastethernet 0/0 interface enable netflow switching on that interface. 


Q362. You are implementing new addressing with EIGRP routing and must use secondary addresses, which are missing from the routing table. Which action is the most efficient solution to the problem? 

A. Disable split-horizon on the interfaces with secondary addresses. 

B. Disable split-horizon inside the EIGRP process on the router with the secondary interface addresses. 

C. Add additional router interfaces and move the secondary addresses to the new interfaces. 

D. Use a different routing protocol and redistribute the routes between EIGRP and the new protocol. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Normally, routers that are connected to broadcast-type IP networks and that use distance-vector routing protocols employ the split horizon mechanism to reduce the possibility of routing loops. Split horizon blocks information about routes from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routers, particularly when links are broken. However, with nonbroadcast networks, situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these situations, you might want to disable split horizon with EIGRP and RIP. If an interface is configured with secondary IP addresses and split horizon is enabled, updates might not be sourced by every secondary address. One routing update is sourced per network number unless split horizon is disabled. 

Reference: 

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfrip.html 


Q363. Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.) 

A. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation. 

B. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity. 

C. In IPv6, routers perform fragmentation. 

D. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet. 

E. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer. 

F. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer. 

Answer: A,B 


Q364. Refer to the exhibit. 

This network is configured with PIM, and the RPF check has failed toward the multicast source. Which two configuration changes must you make to router R3 to enable the RPF check to pass? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source through the tunnel interface. 

B. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the tunnel interface. 

C. Configure a static multicast route to the multicast source LAN through the Ethernet interface. 

D. Remove the command ip prim bidir-enable from the R3 configuration. 

Answer: A,B 


Q365. Which two methods change the IP MTU value for an interface? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure the default MTU. 

B. Configure the IP system MTU. 

C. Configure the interface MTU. 

D. Configure the interface IP MTU. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

An IOS device configured for IP+MPLS routing uses three different Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) values: The hardware MTU configured with the mtu interface configuration command 

. The IP MTU configured with the ip mtu interface configuration command 

. The MPLS MTU configured with the mpls mtu interface configuration command 

The hardware MTU specifies the maximum packet length the interface can support … or at least that's the theory behind it. In reality, longer packets can be sent (assuming the hardware interface chipset doesn't complain); therefore you can configure MPLS MTU to be larger than the interface MTU and still have a working network. Oversized packets might not be received correctly if the interface uses fixed-length buffers; platforms with scatter/gather architecture (also called particle buffers) usually survive incoming oversized packets. 

IP MTU is used to determine whether am IP packet forwarded through an interface has to be fragmented. It has to be lower or equal to hardware MTU (and this limitation is enforced). If it equals the HW MTU, its value does not appear in the running configuration and it tracks the changes in HW MTU. For example, if you configure ip mtu 1300 on a Serial interface, it will appear in the running configuration as long as the hardware MTU is not equal to 1300 (and will not change as the HW MTU changes). However, as soon as the mtu 1300 is configured, the ip mtu 1300 command disappears from the configuration and the IP MTU yet again tracks the HW MTU. 

Reference: http://blog.ipspace.net/2007/10/tale-of-three-mtus.html 


Replace 400-101 testing engine:

Q366. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements are true about the displayed STP state? (Choose two.) 

A. The STP version configured on the switch is IEEE 802.1w. 

B. Port-channel 1 is flapping and the last flap occurred 1 minute and 17 seconds ago. 

C. The switch does not have PortFast configured on Gi0/15. 

D. BPDUs with the TCN bit set are transmitted over port channel 1. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

A port enabled with portfast will not send topology changes when a port goes up or down, but here we see that 296 TCN’s were sent so we know that Gi 0/15 does not have portfast enabled. 

TCN’s are sent using BPDU’s over the root port, which we see is port channel 1. 


Q367. In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the highest drop probability? 

A. AF11 

B. AF13 

C. AF41 

D. AF43 

Answer:

Explanation: 

AF43 — Assured forwarding, high drop probability, Class 4 DSCP, and Flash-override precedence. 

Table of AF Classes and Drop Priority 

Drop Precedence 

Class 1 

Class 2 

Class 3 

Class 4 

Low drop 

AF11 

DSCP 10 

001010 

AF21 

DSCP 18 

010010 

AF31 

DSCP 26 

011010 

AF41 

DSCP 34 

100010 

Medium drop 

AF12 

DSCP 12 

001100 

AF22 

DSCP 20 

010100 

AF32 

DSCP 28 

011100 

AF42 

DSCP 36 

100100 

High drop 

AF13 

DSCP 14 

001110 

AF23 

DSCP 22 

010110 

AF33 

DSCP 30 

011110 

AF43 

DSCP 38 

100110 

Reference: 

https://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCIE_Practical_Studies_II&seqNum=56 


Q368. In a network where a Layer 2 switch interconnects several routers, which feature restricts multicast packets for each IP multicast group to only those mulicast router ports that have downstream receivers joined to that group? 

A. PIM snooping 

B. IGMP snooping 

C. IGMP filter 

D. IGMP proxy 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In networks where a Layer 2 switch interconnects several routers, such as an Internet exchange point (IXP), the switch floods IP multicast packets on all multicast router ports by default, even if there are no multicast receivers downstream. With PIM snooping enabled, the switch restricts multicast packets for each IP multicast group to only those multicast router ports that have downstream receivers joined to that group. When you enable PIM snooping, the switch learns which multicast router ports need to receive the multicast traffic within a specific VLAN by listening to the PIM hello messages, PIM join and prune messages, and bidirectional PIM designated forwarder-election messages. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snooppim.html 


Q369. When you configure the ip pmtu command under an L2TPv3 pseudowire class, which two things can happen when a packet exceeds the L2TP path MTU? (Choose two.) 

A. The router drops the packet. 

B. The router always fragments the packet after L2TP/IP encapsulation. 

C. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP unreachable message back to the sender only if the DF bit is set to 1. 

D. The router always fragments the packet before L2TP/IP encapsulation. 

E. The router fragments the packet after L2TP/IP encapsulation only if the DF bit is set to 0. 

F. The router fragments the packet before L2TP/IP encapsulation only if the DF bit is set to 

0. 

Answer: C,F 

Explanation: 

If you enable the ip pmtu command in the pseudowire class, the L2TPv3 control channel participates in the path MTU discovery. When you enable this feature, the following processing is performed: 

– ICMP unreachable messages sent back to the L2TPv3 router are deciphered and the tunnel MTU is updated accordingly. In order to receive ICMP unreachable messages for fragmentation errors, the DF bit in the tunnel header is set according to the DF bit value received from the CE, or statically if the ip dfbit set option is enabled. The tunnel MTU is periodically reset to the default value based on a periodic timer. 

– ICMP unreachable messages are sent back to the clients on the CE side. ICMP unreachable messages are sent to the CE whenever IP packets arrive on the CE-PE interface and have a packet size greater than the tunnel MTU. A Layer 2 header calculationis performed before the ICMP unreachable message is sent to the CE. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/l2tpv325.html 


Q370. Refer to the exhibit. 

While troubleshooting high CPU utilization on one of your Cisco Catalyst switches, you find that the issue is due to excessive flooding that is caused by STP. What can you do to prevent this issue from happening again? 

A. Disable STP completely on the switch. 

B. Change the STP version to RSTP. 

C. Configure PortFast on port-channel 1. 

D. Configure UplinkFast on the switch. 

E. Configure PortFast on interface Gi0/15. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Topology Changes (TC) should be a rare event in a well-configured network. When a link on a switch port goes up or down, there is eventually a TC, once the STP state of the port is changing to or from forwarding. When the port is flapping, this would cause repetitive TCs and flooding. 

Ports with the STP portfast feature enabled will not cause TCs when going to or from the forwarding state. The configuration of portfast on all end-device ports (such as printers, PCs, and servers) should limit TCs to a low amount and is highly recommended. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/28943-170.html