♥♥ 2018 NEW RECOMMEND ♥♥

★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions

Free Instant Download NEW CSSLP Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on: https://www.exambible.com/CSSLP-exam/

Act now and download your ISC2 CSSLP test today! Do not waste time for the worthless ISC2 CSSLP tutorials. Download Improved ISC2 Certified Information Systems Security Professional exam with real questions and answers and begin to learn ISC2 CSSLP with a classic professional.

Q33. Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language

B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface

C. Code that changes frequently

D. Anonymously accessible code

E. Code that runs by default

F. Code that runs in elevated context

Answer: B,D,E,F

Explanation: Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews": Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application's attack surface. Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application's attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application's attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application's attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.


Q34. Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Biba model

B. Clark-Biba model

C. Clark-Wilson model

D. Bell-LaPadula model

Answer: A,C

Explanation: The Biba and Clark-Wilson access control models are used in the commercial sector. The Biba model is a formal state transition system of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject. The Clark-Wilson security model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. Answer: D is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula access control model is mainly used in military systems. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Clark-Biba.


Q35. Martha registers a domain named Microsoft.in. She tries to sell it to Microsoft Corporation. The infringement of which of the following has she made?

A. Copyright

B. Trademark

C. Patent

D. Intellectual property

Answer: B

Explanation: According to the Lanham Act, domain names fall under trademarks law. A new section 43(d) of the Trademark Act (Lanham Act) states that anyone who in bad faith registers, traffics in, or uses a domain name that infringes or dilutes another's trademark has committed trademark infringement. Factors involved in assessing bad faith focus on activities typically associated with cyberpiracy or cybersquatting, such as whether the registrant has offered to sell the domain name to the trademark holder for financial gain without having used or intended to use it for a bona fide business; whether the domain- name registrant registered multiple domain names that are confusingly similar to the trademarks of others; and whether the trademark incorporated in the domain name is distinctive and famous. Other factors are whether the domain name consists of the legal name or common handle of the domain-name registrant and whether the domain-name registrant previously used the mark in connection with a bona fide business.


Q36. Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?

A. Information Assurance (IA)

B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)

C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)

D. Risk Management

Answer: C

Explanation: Certification and accreditation (C&A) is a set of processes that culminate in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls. Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating,

describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Risk management is a set of processes that ensures a risk-based approach is used to determine adequate, cost- effective security for a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Information assurance (IA) is the process of organizing and monitoring information-related risks. It ensures that only the approved users have access to the approved information at the approved time. IA practitioners seek to protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication, availability, and non-repudiation. These objectives are applicable whether the information is in storage, processing, or transit, and whether threatened by an attack. Answer: B is incorrect. ISSE is a set of processes and solutions used during all phases of a system's life cycle to meet the system's information protection needs.


Q37. Which of the following is an open source network intrusion detection system?

A. NETSH

B. Macof

C. Sourcefire

D. Snort

Answer: D

Explanation: Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows:

Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. Macof is a tool of the dsniff tool set and used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses. It causes some switches to fail open in repeating mode, and facilitates sniffing. Answer: C is incorrect. Sourcefire is the company that owns and maintains Snort. Answer: A is incorrect. NETSH is not a network intrusion detection system. NETSH is a command line tool to configure TCP/IP settings such as the IP address, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, DNS, WINS addresses, etc.


Q38. Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?

A. Acceptance

B. Avoidance

C. Mitigation

D. Transference

Answer: D

Explanation: This is an example of transference. When the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee, it creates a contractual-relationship for the third party to manage the risk on behalf of the performing organization. Risk response planning is a method of developing options to decrease the amount of threats and make the most of opportunities. The risk response should be aligned with the consequence of the risk and cost- effectiveness. This planning documents the processes for managing risk events. It addresses the owners and their responsibilities, risk identification, results from qualification and quantification processes, budgets and times for responses, and contingency plans. The various risk response planning techniques are as follows: Risk acceptance: It indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. Risk avoidance: It is a technique for a threat, which creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk or to protect the project objectives from this impact. Risk mitigation: It is a list of specific actions being taken to deal with specific risks associated with the threats and seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of risk below an acceptable threshold. Risk transference: It is used to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the ownership of the response.


Q39. You are the project manager of QSL project for your organization. You are working with your project team and several key stakeholders to create a diagram that shows how various elements of a system interrelate and the mechanism of causation within the system. What diagramming technique are you using as a part of the risk identification process?

A. Cause and effect diagrams

B. Influence diagrams

C. Predecessor and successor diagramming

D. System or process flowcharts

Answer: D

Explanation: In this example you are using a system or process flowchart. These can help identify risks within the process flow, such as bottlenecks or redundancy. Answer: A is incorrect. A cause and effect diagram, also known as an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram, can reveal causal factors to the effect to be solved. Answer: B is incorrect. An influence diagram shows causal influences, time ordering of events and relationships among variables and outcomes. Answer: C is incorrect. Predecessor and successor diagramming is not a valid risk identification term.


Q40. Which of the following actions does the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology take when an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It creates an alert.

B. It quarantines the file to a secure location.

C. It reconstructs the session.

D. It blocks the transmission of content.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation: When an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states, the Data Loss prevention (DLP) technology takes one of the following actions: It creates an alert. It notifies an administrator of a violation. It quarantines the file to a secure location. It encrypts the file. It blocks the transmission of content. Answer: C is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) reconstructs the session when data is in motion.