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Q121. Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor?
A. 320x200-pixels
B. 640x480-pixels
C. 800x600-pixels
D. 1024x768-pixels
Answer: B
Explanation: Video Graphic Array (VGA) monitors have a default resolution of 640x480-pixels. This is known as standard VGA resolution. Although computers typically use this resolution by default, you can get better resolution using a specifically designed video driver for the installed adapter. Answer: A, C, D are incorrect. Super VGA monitors have a default resolution of 800x600-pixels. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors.
Q122. An 80 year old man is dissatisfied with several aspects of his hospital stay, which of the following pieces of legislation allows him to file a formal complaint?
A. MIPPA
B. HIPPA
C. EMTALA
D. Patient Bill of Rights
Answer: D
Explanation: Patient Bill of Rights. Patient Bill of Rights is correct as this legislation requires health care providers inform all patients of their rights as patients receiving medical treatment. There are eight rights every patient has as a recipient of medical care and one of those rights is the ability to file a complaint against the health plan, physician, hospitals and other health care personnel. Answer: A is incorrect. MIPPA is as this as this legislation is designed used to adjust Medicare reimbursement to certain facilities. Answer: C is incorrect. EMTALA is as this legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay Answer: B is incorrect. HIPPA is as this legislation is designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q123. A medical practice knows that its billing office is open to public viewing because it is attached to the front welcome-desk as a time-saving device for communication between billing staff and front office staff. The practice knows that other patients' PHI billing information could easily be viewed by patients standing at the front desk, but chooses not to change the scenario. What kind of penalty could the practice face?
A. Minimum of $1,000
B. This is not a civil violation, only a criminal violation.
C. Minimum of $10,000
D. Minimum of $100
Answer: C
Explanation: This is a civil penalty due to "willful neglect." Answer: D is incorrect. It is only for an individual who did not know and by exercising reasonable diligence would not have known that this was a HIPAA violation. Answer: A is incorrect. It is for a violation due to reasonable cause and not neglect. Answer: B is incorrect. Criminal penalties are only when covered entities actively disclose or obtain PHI in violation of HIPAA.
Q124. When working in a healthcare organization email communication presents special problems. Though a very useful tool, it can also present problems for an organization. Which of the following is NOT a potential problem regarding email communication?
A. Protected health information must be encrypted in order to send PHI via email, in case an email is intercepted during transmission.
B. Many emails regarding treatment, payment and business operations can by both HIPAA and Sarbanes Oxley law be required to be retained as part of the legal record and stored for years.
C. If any protected health information is going to be sent through email, authentication of the recipient is crucial for protection of PHI. Access control systems must be in place to authenticate sender and recipient of any email containing PHI.
D. If patient's request the service, email can be used for appointment reminders, prescription refill completion and other low-sensitivity messages.
Answer: D
Explanation: If the security rule requirements at 45 C.F.R. Part 164, Subpart C are fulfilled, email can be used to communicate with patients. Even unencrypted emails are possible if information is not of a sensitive nature and patients have opted in to the service. Answer: B is incorrect. This is a serious consideration to any business, not just a healthcare business. Email is part of the business recorC, Dan be held up in court as evidence of wrongdoing. Deleting emails can be considered hiding evidence. Answer: C is incorrect. This can be a serious problem with any means of transferring PHI. It is very important if protected health information is emailed, that the end recipient is authenticated. Some organizations use internal email systems requiring layers of authentication to access in order to guarantee that the intended recipient receives an email. Answer: A is incorrect. HIPAA security rule demands that if PHI is to be transmitted by electronic means that it needs to be encrypted so that it cannot be read if intercepted in transmission.
Q125. You are asked to reduce medical records for a dental practice, you can eliminate all records that are older than which of the following?
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. 30 years
Answer: A
Explanation: All primary dental records must be retained for a period of at least 4 years from the date of the patient's last episode of care. Answer: B is incorrect. 6 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time in which all materials containing HIPAA information must be kept. Answer: C is incorrect. 10 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time all primary medical records must be retained. Answer: D is incorrect. 30 years is incorrect as no medical information is required to be retained for 30 years.
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Q126. You have a family member with terminal cancer who suddenly develops pneumonia. Which of the following types of healthcare facilities is best equipped to handle this scenario?
A. Nonacute Care Facililty
B. Subacute Care Facility
C. Acute Care Facility
D. Ambulatory Care Facility
Answer: B
Explanation: A subacute care facility is a type of facility is required to treat individuals who have an acute illness or injury on top of a chronic illness. These facilities are used to treat the acute disease process that cannot be treated by the long term care facility. Answer: D is incorrect. Ambulatory care facility is incorrect as this facility offers a variety of outpatient services which is directly overseen by a hospital, but patients to do not require a stay in the hospital.
Q127. Federal Health Care Reform mandates the beginning of movement to electronic medical records for all hospitals and clinics starting in 2015, and this impacts rural hospital especially hard. As a healthcare IT professional, if you are hired at a rural hospital to help convert a paper based system to an electronic health record system you may be working with limited resources and higher levels of responsibility, but make a big impact. Which of the following is true about healthcare IT opportunities at rural hospitals?
A. Rural hospitals band together to make best use of healthcare IT professionals and resources and share across distances.
B. The federal government awards grants to help with implementation of electronic records and some of this is focused on rural clinics and hospitals.
C. There is a real shortage of Healthcare IT professionals in rural settings.
D. There is an exception for rural hospitals in the electronic medical record requirements.
Answer: ABC
Explanation: There is a real need for healthcare IT professionals in rural settings, there is grant money available for EHR implementation, and often hospitals band together to share resources in IT. The situation is critical at these important healthcare facilities and there are big opportunities for healthcare IT professionals to make a needed impact. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no exception to federal healthcare reform requirements for electronic medical records system updates starting in 2015.
Q128. You are asked to install an information system in the Nuclear Medicine department in order to record the use of radioisotopes. Which type of information system would you install for this purpose?
A. Enterprise System
B. Intradepartmental System
C. External System
D. Departmental System
Answer: D
Explanation: A departmental information system is a system that is that is limited and serves the purposes of one department or domain. Examples are dose management systems that are used by pharmacies. Answer: A is incorrect. Enterprise system is incorrect as this type of system is designed for use for all departments that encompass a large health system including hospitals, clinics and nursing homes. Answer: C is incorrect. External system is incorrect as this type of system is shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies or as an information exchange for regional health information networks. Answer: B is incorrect. Intradepartmental system is incorrect as this type of system is primarily used by one department but shares functions and information with other departments.
Q129. Which of the following database models supports the many-many model by allowing each child to have more than one parent?
A. Object Oriented Model
B. Network Model
C. Enterprise Model
D. Hierarchal Model
Answer: B
Explanation: The network model is designed to allow the child to have more than one parent. This model is often referred to as the many to many model. Answer: D is incorrect. Hierarchal model is incorrect as this database model uses the format of a typical parent-child arrangement, whereas, one piece of information can have many subordinated pieces. Answer: A is incorrect. Object oriented model is incorrect as this model is essentially a collection of objects, related by encapsulation (an object such as a patient has certain characteristics) or inheritance (an object such as a resident inherits characteristics from a physician object). There is no primary key in this model. Answer: C is incorrect. Enterprise model is meant as a distractor, the enterprise database model does not exist.
Q130. Which of the following is a networking protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use a network service?
A. IPSec
B. RADIUS
C. SSL
D. HTTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use a network service. Because of the broad support and the ubiquitous nature of the RADIUS protocol, it is often used by ISPs and enterprises to manage access to the Internet or internal networks, wireless networks, and integrated e-mail services. These networks may incorporate modems, DSL, access points, VPNs, network ports, Web servers, etc.RADIUS is a client/server protocol that runs in the application layer, using UDP as transport. The Remote Access Server, the Virtual Private Network server, the Network switch with port-based authentication, and the Network Access Server, are all gateways that control access to the network, and all have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS server. The RADIUS server is usually a background process running on a UNIX or Windows NT machine. RADIUS serves three functions:To authenticate users or devices before granting them access to a networkTo authorize those users or devices for certain network servicesTo account for usage of those services Answer: A is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured. Its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver. Answer: D is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer: C is incorrect. The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers. SSL is included as part of both the Microsoft and Netscape browsers and most Web server products. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https. instead of http: