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2021 Dec SY0-401 question
Q611. Which of the following protocols is used to authenticate the client and server’s digital certificate?
A. PEAP
B. DNS
C. TLS
D. ICMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It uses X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom it is communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key.
Q612. A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?
A. Peer to Peer
B. Mobile devices
C. Social networking
D. Personally owned devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
There many companies that allow full use of social media in the workplace, believing that the marketing opportunities it holds outweigh any loss in productivity. What they are unknowingly minimizing are the threats that exist. Rather than being all new threats, the social networking/media threats tend to fall in the categories of the same old tricks used elsewhere but in a new format. A tweet can be sent with a shortened URL so that it does not exceed the 140-character limit set by Twitter; unfortunately, the user has no idea what the shortened URL leads to. This makes training your employees regarding the risks social networking entails essential.
Q613. A security administrator wants to deploy a physical security control to limit an individual’s access into a sensitive area. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Guards
B. CCTV
C. Bollards
D. Spike strip
Answer: A
Explanation:
A guard can be intimidating and respond to a situation and in a case where you want to limit an individual’s access to a sensitive area a guard would be the most effective.
Q614. A company with a US-based sales force has requested that the VPN system be configured to authenticate the sales team based on their username, password and a client side certificate.
Additionally, the security administrator has restricted the VPN to only allow authentication from the US territory. How many authentication factors are in use by the VPN system?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Three different types of authentication factors have been used in this question:
Something you know – username and password.
Something you have - client side certificate.
Somewhere you are - authentication to the VPN is only allowed from the U.S. territory.
Q615. Public keys are used for which of the following?
A. Decrypting wireless messages
B. Decrypting the hash of an electronic signature
C. Bulk encryption of IP based email traffic
D. Encrypting web browser traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sender uses the private key to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. The sender then sends the message to the receiver. The receiver uses the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, the receiver knows the message is authentic.
Renew SY0-401 test engine:
Q616. The security department has implemented a new laptop encryption product in the environment. The product requires one user name and password at the time of boot up and also another password after the operating system has finished loading. This setup is using which of the following authentication types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single factor authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single-factor authentication is when only one authentication factor is used. In this case, Something you know is being used as an authentication factor. Username, password, and PIN form part of Something you know.
Q617. A security analyst informs the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) that a security breach has just occurred. This results in the Risk Manager and Chief Information Officer (CIO) being caught unaware when the CEO asks for further information. Which of the following strategies should be implemented to ensure the Risk Manager and CIO are not caught unaware in the future?
A. Procedure and policy management
B. Chain of custody management
C. Change management
D. Incident management
Answer: D
Explanation:
incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets). The events that could occur include security breaches.
Q618. Company XYZ has encountered an increased amount of buffer overflow attacks. The programmer has been tasked to identify the issue and report any findings. Which of the following is the FIRST step of action recommended in this scenario?
A. Baseline Reporting
B. Capability Maturity Model
C. Code Review
D. Quality Assurance and Testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q619. A forensic analyst is reviewing electronic evidence after a robbery. Security cameras installed at the site were facing the wrong direction to capture the incident. The analyst ensures the cameras are turned to face the proper direction. Which of the following types of controls is being used?
A. Detective
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Preventive
Answer: C
Explanation:
A corrective control would be any corrective action taken to correct any existing control that were faulty or wrongly installed – as in this case the cameras were already there, it just had to be adjusted to perform its function as intended.
Q620. A major security risk with co-mingling of hosts with different security requirements is:
A. Security policy violations.
B. Zombie attacks.
C. Password compromises.
D. Privilege creep.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The entire network is only as strong as the weakest host. Thus with the co-mingling of hosts with different security requirements would be risking security policy violations.