Although every product in Exambible varies in complexity and depth, all certification exams are usually created specifically with regard to customers and cover core factors measuring technical knowledge. CompTIA SY0-401 exam test candidates the technical knowledge and practical capabilities in perform office. Ahead of you get the well-paid job within IT area, candidates must pass the particular technical exam and accept the particular CompTIA CompTIA certification.

2021 Jan SY0-401 exam fees

Q421. Which of the following security account management techniques should a security analyst implement to prevent staff, who has switched company roles, from exceeding privileges? 

A. Internal account audits 

B. Account disablement 

C. Time of day restriction 

D. Password complexity 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Internal account auditing will allow you to switch the appropriate users to the proper accounts required after the switching of roles occurred and thus check that the principle of least privilege is followed. 


Q422. Which of the following utilities can be used in Linux to view a list of users’ failed authentication attempts? 

A. badlog 

B. faillog 

C. wronglog 

D. killlog 

Answer:

Explanation: 

var/log/faillog - This Linux log fi le contains failed user logins. You’ll find this log useful when 

tracking attempts to crack into your system. 

/var/log/apport.log This log records application crashes. Sometimes these can reveal attempts to 

compromise the system or the presence of a virus or spyware. 


Q423. Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place? 

A. Code review 

B. Penetration test 

C. Protocol analyzer 

D. Vulnerability scan 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in. 

Pen test strategies include: 

Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out. 

External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access. 

Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause. 

Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive. 

Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures. 


Q424. A company would like to take electronic orders from a partner; however, they are concerned that a non-authorized person may send an order. The legal department asks if there is a solution that provides non-repudiation. Which of the following would meet the requirements of this scenario? 

A. Encryption 

B. Digital signatures 

C. Steganography 

D. Hashing 

E. Perfect forward secrecy 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q425. Which of the following provides the HIGHEST level of confidentiality on a wireless network? 

A. Disabling SSID broadcast 

B. MAC filtering 

C. WPA2 

D. Packet switching 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) authentication protocols were designed to address the core, easy-to-crack problems of WEP. 


Replace SY0-401 free practice questions:

Q426. Sara, a security architect, has developed a framework in which several authentication servers work together to increase processing power for an application. Which of the following does this represent? 

A. Warm site 

B. Load balancing 

C. Clustering 

D. RAID 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Anytime you connect multiple computers to work/act together as a single server, it is known as 

clustering. Clustered systems utilize parallel processing (improving performance and availability) 

and add redundancy. 

Server clustering is used to provide failover capabilities / redundancy in addition to scalability as 

demand increases. 


Q427. The method to provide end users of IT systems and applications with requirements related to acceptable use, privacy, new threats and trends, and use of social networking is: 

A. Security awareness training. 

B. BYOD security training. 

C. Role-based security training. 

D. Legal compliance training. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Security awareness and training are critical to the success of a security effort. They include explaining policies, procedures, and current threats to both users and management. 


Q428. When reviewing a digital certificate for accuracy, which of the following would Matt, a security administrator, focus on to determine who affirms the identity of the certificate owner? 

A. Trust models 

B. CRL 

C. CA 

D. Recovery agent 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing certificates. The CA affirms the identity of the certificate owner. 


Q429. Which of the following will help prevent smurf attacks? 

A. Allowing necessary UDP packets in and out of the network 

B. Disabling directed broadcast on border routers 

C. Disabling unused services on the gateway firewall 

D. Flash the BIOS with the latest firmware 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A smurf attack involves sending PING requests to a broadcast address. Therefore, we can prevent smurf attacks by blocking broadcast packets on our external routers. A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network. 


Q430. A user, Ann, is reporting to the company IT support group that her workstation screen is blank other than a window with a message requesting payment or else her hard drive will be formatted. Which of the following types of malware is on Ann’s workstation? 

A. Trojan 

B. Spyware 

C. Adware 

D. Ransomware 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Ransomware is a type of malware which restricts access to the computer system that it infects, and demands a ransom paid to the creator(s) of the malware in order for the restriction to be removed. Some forms of ransomware encrypt files on the system's hard drive), while some may simply lock the system and display messages intended to coax the user into paying. Ransomware typically propagates as a trojan like a conventional computer worm, entering a system through, for example, a downloaded file or a vulnerability in a network service. The program will then run a payload: such as one that will begin to encrypt personal files on the hard drive. More sophisticated ransomware may hybrid-encrypt the victim's plaintext with a random symmetric key and a fixed public key. The malware author is the only party that knows the needed private decryption key. Some ransomware payloads do not use encryption. In these cases, the payload is simply an application designed to restrict interaction with the system, typically by setting the Windows Shell to itself, or even modifying the master boot record and/or partition table (which prevents the operating system from booting at all until it is repaired) 

Ransomware payloads utilize elements of scareware to extort money from the system's user. The payload may, for example, display notices purportedly issued by companies or law enforcement agencies which falsely claim that the system had been used for illegal activities, or contains illegal content such as pornography and pirated software or media. Some ransomware payloads imitate Windows’ product activation notices, falsely claiming that their computer's Windows installation is counterfeit or requires re-activation. These tactics coax the user into paying the malware's author to remove the ransomware, either by supplying a program which can decrypt the files, or by sending an unlock code that undoes the changes the payload has made.