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NEW QUESTION 1
Which approach splits a pair of clustered fabric interconnects into two standalone devices?

  • A. Run the disable fips-mode command on each fabric interconnect.
  • B. Run the connect local-management command on each fabric interconnect.
  • C. Erase the configuration of both fabric interconnects.
  • D. Unplug the Layer 1 and Layer 2 interfaces between the devices.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Which technology enables Layer 2 extension between remote data center sites?

  • A. FCIP
  • B. GRE
  • C. DMVPN
  • D. OTV

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
An engineer deploys LISP VM mobility. Which feature is configured on the interfaces that have VM mobility enabled?

  • A. IP redirects
  • B. flow control
  • C. proxy ARP
  • D. HSRP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Which Cisco HyperFlex feature provides virtual machine-level cost scaling for desktop virtualization growth?

  • A. HyperFlex Edge support
  • B. encryption offload cards
  • C. dedicated compute nodes
  • D. fabric interconnects

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two naming formats identify target or initiator iSCSI nodes? (Choose two.)

  • A. WWPN
  • B. EUI
  • C. IQN
  • D. WWN
  • E. OUI

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 6
What is an advantage of Cisco HyperFlex Edge as compared to Cisco HyperFlex Standard Clusters?

  • A. Cisco Intersight automatically creates an invisible cloud witness.
  • B. Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis provides SEEPROM connectivity to solve split-brain scenarios.
  • C. Cisco UCS Manager provides service profile portability across nodes.
  • D. Cisco HyperFlex Edge provides native container support through the KVM hypervisor.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
What can be implemented on Cisco Nexus 5600 Series Switches for link redundancy within a Fibre Channel fabric?

  • A. vPC+
  • B. E-Trunk
  • C. SAN port channel
  • D. LACP port channel

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
Which Ethernet to Cisco Fabric Interconnect connectivity configuration is supported when FCoE is implemented?

  • A. VSS that has unified uplinks
  • B. Ethernet and unified ports on the same port channel
  • C. vPC that has unified uplinks
  • D. cross-connections with pinning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
What are two advantages of using Cisco vPC over traditional access layer designs? (Choose two.)

  • A. supports Layer 3 port channels
  • B. disables spanning-tree
  • C. no spanning-tree blocked ports
  • D. uses all available uplink bandwidth
  • E. maintains single control plane

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 10
Which two vSphere features must be included in the design of a Cisco HyperFlex systems stretched cluster? (Choose two.)

  • A. HA
  • B. VSS
  • C. FT
  • D. VDP
  • E. DRS

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 11
Which feature provides a sandbox to convert NX-OS CLI commands to REST-based scripts on Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switches?

  • A. NX-API
  • B. Postman
  • C. Bash shell
  • D. Guest shell

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.
300-610 dumps exhibit

  • A. Mastered
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
300-610 dumps exhibit

NEW QUESTION 13
Which two methods mitigate congestion in a SAN network? (Choose two.)

  • A. Configure ER_RDY to allow splitting of each ISL between switches into separate virtual links.
  • B. Use the port-monitor command to detect slow drain devices.
  • C. Configure the port channel to enable individual buffer-to-buffer credits.
  • D. Configure the port monitor to allow categorization of a specific device as slow.
  • E. Configure the flow control for the FC to use R_RDY.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe Ethernet switching mode on Cisco UCS 6100 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose two.)

  • A. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by PVSTP+.
  • B. STP runs on the uplink ports of each VLAN, as defined by MSTP.
  • C. The STP parameter configuration is unsupported.
  • D. The STP parameter configuration is supported.
  • E. STP runs on the server ports.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 15
What is the disadvantage of asynchronous storage replication as compared to synchronous storage replication in a disaster recovery design?

  • A. reduction in application performance
  • B. distance limitations
  • C. specific backup requirements
  • D. potential data loss

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which type fields can an engineer use to identify an iSCSI participant? (Choose two.)

  • A. type
  • B. preshared key
  • C. port number
  • D. identifying tag
  • E. hostname

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 17
An engineer is designing a data center that uses FCIP. How is QoS configured in this environment?

  • A. A separate DSCP value and CoPP must be configured for all FCIP traffic and another for all of the FCIP in the data connection.
  • B. A separate DSCP value must be configured for all FCIP VSAN traffic.
  • C. A separate DSCP value and priority queuing must be configured for all FCIP traffic.
  • D. Two separate DSCP values must be configured, one of all of the FCIP frames in the control TCP connection and another for all of the FCIP frames in the data connection.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
300-610 dumps exhibit
An engineer must assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single port channel. Which two features must be enabled this goal? (Choose two.)

  • A. SAN Pin Groups on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
  • B. NPV feature on the Cisco MDS Series.
  • C. end-host mode feature on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects
  • D. NPIV feature on the Cisco MDS Series
  • E. Smart Zoning feature on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 19
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel fabric when that component fails.
300-610 dumps exhibit

  • A. Mastered
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
300-610 dumps exhibit

NEW QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
300-610 dumps exhibit
What must be the default gateway of the servers in EPG Web?

  • A. subnet address of BD1
  • B. subnet address of L3Out
  • C. subnet address of BD2
  • D. NAT appliance

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
What are two functions of a Network Services Orchestrator in an NFV environment? (Choose two.)

  • A. It operates at the resource-facing services layer and provides overall lifecycle management at the network service level.
  • B. It provides an API-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the resource-facing services layer.
  • C. It provides a standards-based southbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operate at the customer-facing services layer.
  • D. It provides a standards-based northbound interface for transparent integration with systems that operateat the customer-facing services layer.
  • E. It operates at the customer-facing services layer and provides the management interface for the virtual network devices.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-610 dumps exhibit
A Cisco UCS chassis that has two IOMs is discovered. The chassis discovery policy creates a fabric port channel. What is the result of this policy?

  • A. Cisco UCS Manager creates two separate fabric port channels.
  • B. Cisco UCS Manager creates a single fabric port channel.
  • C. The port channel is disabled until an administrator enables it manually.
  • D. Each uplink that connects an IOM is configured as a discrete link.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23
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