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Q41. A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability. 

Which of the following BEST describes this exploit? 

A. Malicious insider threat 

B. Zero-day 

C. Client-side attack 

D. Malicious add-on 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users. In this question, there are no patches are available to mitigate the vulnerability. This is therefore a zero-day vulnerability. 


Q42. DRAG DROP 

Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list. Determine the types of Attacks from right to specific action. 

Answer: 

Explanation: 

A. Phishing. 

B. Whaling. 

C. Vishing. 

D. Spim. 

E. Social engineering. 

A: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page. 

B: Whaling is a specific kind of malicious hacking within the more general category of phishing, which involves hunting for data that can be used by the hacker. In general, phishing efforts are focused on collecting personal data about users. In whaling, the targets are high-ranking bankers, executives or others in powerful positions or job titles. Hackers who engage in whaling often describe these efforts as "reeling in a big fish," applying a familiar metaphor to the process of scouring technologies for loopholes and opportunities for data theft. Those who are engaged in whaling may, for example, hack into specific networks where these powerful individuals work or store sensitive data. They may also set up keylogging or other malware on a work station associated with one of these executives. There are many ways that hackers can pursue whaling, leading C-level or top-level executives in business and government to stay vigilant about the possibility of cyber threats. 

C: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit. 

D: SPIM is a term sometimes used to refer to spam over IM (Instant Messaging). It’s also called just spam, instant spam, or IM marketing. No matter what the name, it consists of unwanted messages transmitted through some form of instant messaging service, which can include Short Message Service (SMS). 

E: Social engineering is a non-technical method of intrusion hackers use that relies heavily on human interaction and often involves tricking people into breaking normal security procedures. It is one of the greatest threats that organizations today encounter. A social engineer runs what used to be called a "con game." For example, a person using social engineering to break into a computer network might try to gain the confidence of an authorized user and get them to reveal information that compromises the network's security. Social engineers often rely on the natural helpfulness of people as well as on their weaknesses. They might, for example, call the authorized employee with some kind of urgent problem that requires immediate network access. Appealing to vanity, appealing to authority, appealing to greed, and old-fashioned eavesdropping are other typical social engineering techniques. 

References: 

http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/phishing.html http://www.techopedia.com/definition/28643/whaling http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vishing.html http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/social-engineering 


Q43. Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers? 

A. Packet filtering firewall 

B. VPN gateway 

C. Switch 

D. Router 

Answer:

Explanation: 

VPNs are usually employed to allow remote access users to connect to and access the network, and offer connectivity between two or more private networks or LANs. A VPN gateway (VPN router) is a connection point that connects two LANs via a nonsecure network such as the Internet. 


Q44. Which of the following is the BEST method for ensuring all files and folders are encrypted on all corporate laptops where the file structures are unknown? 

A. Folder encryption 

B. File encryption 

C. Whole disk encryption 

D. Steganography 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen. Furthermore, full-disk encryption is not dependant on knowledge of the file structure. 


Q45. Maintenance workers find an active network switch hidden above a dropped-ceiling tile in the CEO’s office with various connected cables from the office. Which of the following describes the type of attack that was occurring? 

A. Spear phishing 

B. Packet sniffing 

C. Impersonation 

D. MAC flooding 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing packets sent from a computer system is known as packet sniffing. However, packet sniffing requires a physical connection to the network. The switch hidden in the ceiling is used to provide the physical connection to the network. Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor) from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal). 

A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer. 


Improve SY0-401 exam prep:

Q46. A system administrator is responding to a legal order to turn over all logs from all company servers. The system administrator records the system time of all servers to ensure that: 

A. HDD hashes are accurate. 

B. the NTP server works properly. 

C. chain of custody is preserved. 

D. time offset can be calculated. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system. 


Q47. Which of the following ports should be used by a system administrator to securely manage a remote server? 

A. 22 

B. 69 

C. 137 

D. 445 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Secure Shell (SSH) is a more secure replacement for Telnet, rlogon, rsh, and rcp. SSH can be called a remote access or remote terminal solution. SSH offers a means by which a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device can be established over any distance. SSH makes use of TCP port 22. 


Q48. An SSL/TLS private key is installed on a corporate web proxy in order to inspect HTTPS requests. Which of the following describes how this private key should be stored so that it is protected from theft? 

A. Implement full disk encryption 

B. Store on encrypted removable media 

C. Utilize a hardware security module 

D. Store on web proxy file system 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Hardware Security Module (HSM) hardware-based encryption solution that is usually used in conjunction with PKI to enhance security with certification authorities (CAs). It is available as an expansion card and can cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. 


Q49. Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device? 

A. Continuity of operations 

B. Input validation 

C. Single point of failure 

D. Single sign on 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The major disadvantage of combining everything into one, although you do this to save costs, is to include a potential single point of failure and the reliance/dependence on a single vendor. 


Q50. A security administrator is reviewing the below output from a password auditing tool: 

P@ss. 

@pW1. 

S3cU4 

Which of the following additional policies should be implemented based on the tool’s output? 

A. Password age 

B. Password history 

C. Password length 

D. Password complexity 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The output shows that all the passwords are either 4 or 5 characters long. This is way too short, 8 characters are shown to be the minimum for password length.