What Realistic 220-1101 Prep Is

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect one or more devices lo the internet in a SOHO?

• A. Hub
• B. Ethernet gateway
• C. Wireless access point
• D. Router

Answer: D

Explanation:
A router is a device that connects one or more networks, such as a home or small office network, to the internet. It allows multiple devices to share a single internet connection and provides network address translation (NAT) to enable communication between the devices on the local network and the internet. A hub, Ethernet gateway, or wireless access point does not provide this functionality.
A router is the most likely device to be used to connect one or more devices to the internet in a SOHO. A router can provide network address translation (NAT), firewall protection, and other features that are important for securing and managing a network. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, pg. 355

NEW QUESTION 2

An IT manager is evaluating ticket resolution times. While reviewing the data, the manager notices repetitive issues are taking longer than expected to resolve. Which of the following changes should the manager implement to resolve repetitive issues more quickly?

• A. Require the technicians to spend more time testing theories to determine the root causes of issues.
• B. Require the technicians to verify full system functionality when resolving issues.
• C. Require the technicians to gather more information when speaking with users aboutissues.
• D. Require the technicians to document the findings, action, and outcomes of issues.

Answer: D

Explanation:
By documenting the findings, action, and outcomes of issues, the technicians can create a knowledge base that can be used to resolve similar issues in the future more quickly and efficiently. The documentation can also help identify patterns or trends that can lead to preventive measures or root cause analysis. Documenting the issues can also improve communication and collaboration among technicians and users, as well as provide evidence of service quality and performance. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 4)

NEW QUESTION 3

A network technician is working to locate an end user's Cat 6 cable within a network rack. The server rack is poorly documented, and a cable management system has not been implemented_ Which of the following would be the best tool to best identify the correct cable?

• A. Cable tester
• B. Network tap
• C. Toner probe
• D. Loopback plug

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best tool to identify the correct cable is C. Toner probe.
A toner probe is a device that can be used to locate and trace a specific cable within a network rack or a wall outlet. A toner probe consists of two parts: a tone generator and a tone detector. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable and sends an audible signal through the cable. The tone detector is used to scan the other end of the cable and pick up the signal. The tone detector emits a sound or a light when it detects the signal, indicating the correct cable.
A toner probe can be useful for network technicians who need to locate an end user’s Cat 6 cable within a network rack that is poorly documented and has no cable management system. A Cat 6 cable is a type of twisted pair cable that can support high-speed data transmission over Ethernet networks. A network rack is a frame that holds network equipment, such as servers, switches, routers, or patch panels. A cable management system is a set of devices or methods that organize and secure the cables within a network rack .
The other options are not the best tools to identify the correct cable, because they have different purposes or limitations. A cable tester (option A) is a device that can be used to test the functionality and quality of a cable, such as its continuity, resistance, or interference. A cable tester can help diagnose and troubleshoot faulty cables, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A network tap (option B) is a device that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic and data that pass through a network. A network tap can help capture and inspect network packets, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A loopback plug (option D) is a device that can be used to test the functionality and connectivity of a port or an interface. A loopback plug can help verify if a port or an interface is working properly, but it cannot locate or trace specific cables within a network rack.
For more information about toner probes and other network tools, you can refer to the following web search results: [What Is a Toner Probe?], [What Is Cat 6 Cable?], [What Is a Network Rack?], [What Is a Cable Tester?], [What Is a Network Tap?], [What Is a Loopback Plug?].

NEW QUESTION 4

A technician is troubleshooting a phone with limited internet connectivity. The technician has identified the phone on the Wi-Fi network and confirmed that it responds to pings. However, the phone is still unable to open comptia.org. Which of the following should the technician check next?

• A. Jailbreak status
• B. DNS servers
• C. Airplane mode
• D. Certificate store

Answer: B

Explanation:
DNS servers are responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, which are used to access websites. If the phone has limited internet connectivity, it might be because the DNS servers are not working properly or are blocked by the network. The technician should check the DNS settings on the phone and try to use a different DNS server, such as Google DNS (8.8.8.8 or 8.8.4.4) or Cloudflare DNS (1.1.1.1 or 1.0.0.1).
References
•9 Best Ways to Fix Wi-Fi Showing Limited Connectivity in Android
•7 Easy Ways to Fix Limited Wi-Fi Connectivity on Android
•How to Fix Limited Connectivity Issue in Android Wi-Fi

NEW QUESTION 5

A user needs to connect a laptop to the internet while traveling on a train. Which of the following features should be enabled on the user's phone?

• A. Bluetooth
• B. Near-field communication
• C. Hotspot
• D. Roaming

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hotspot is a feature that allows a phone to share its cellular data connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. This can be useful when traveling on a train, where Wi-Fi networks may not be available or reliable. A hotspot can provide internet access to a laptop or other devices that need to connect to the web.
Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, usually within 10 meters. It can be used to pair devices such as headphones, speakers, keyboards, mice, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.
Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that allows devices to exchange data by touching or bringing them close together, usually within 4 cm. It can be used for applications such as contactless payments, smart cards, digital tickets, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.
Roaming is a feature that allows a phone to use another carrier’s network when the home network is not available. This can be useful when traveling abroad, where the home network may not have coverage or agreements with local operators. However, roaming can incur additional charges and may not provide the same speed or quality of service as the home network. Roaming does not affect the ability of the phone to share internet access with other devices via hotspot.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following provides the highest level of isolation from the host operating system?
✑ Type Il hypervisor
✑ Resource pooling
✑ Hardware-assisted virtualization

• A. Single-node clustering

Answer: A

Explanation:
A type II hypervisor is a software application that runs on top of a host operating system and creates virtual machines that are isolated from the host. A type II hypervisor provides the highest level of isolation from the host operating system because it does not have direct access to the hardware resources and relies on the host operating system for drivers and services. A type II hypervisor also allows the guest operating systems to run different types of operating systems than the host.
References: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook, page 223

NEW QUESTION 7

A user requested upgrades to a company-issued laptop to increase its performance while working with a large database stored on drive C. Which of the following tasks should a systems administrator complete to BEST meet this goal? (Select TWO).

• A. Configure RAID 1.
• B. Install a hybrid drive.
• C. Upgrade to 1GB NIC.
• D. Increase the RAM.
• E. Migrate to a SSD.
• F. Upgrade the power supply.

Answer: DE

Explanation:
To increase the performance of a laptop working with a large database stored on drive C, a systems administrator should increase the RAM and migrate to an SSD. Increasing the RAM will help the laptop to better handle the large database, while migrating to an SSD will improve the speed at which the laptop can access the database. Configuring RAID 1, installing a hybrid drive, upgrading to a 1GB NIC, and upgrading the power supply will not directly improve the laptop's performance when working with a large database. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.1

NEW QUESTION 8

A graphic designer wants to purchase a laptop that provides the most accurate color spectrum available when viewed from as many different angles as possible. Which is the following display types would best meet the graphic designer's requirements?

• A. LCD
• B. Plasma
• C. OLED
• D. VGA

Answer: C

Explanation:
Graphic design

Explore
The correct answer is C. OLED.
OLED stands for Organic Light-Emitting Diode, and it is a type of display technology that uses organic compounds to create light and color. Unlike LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) or Plasma displays, OLED does not require a backlight or a filter to produce images. This means that OLED can offer higher contrast, wider color gamut, and better viewing angles than other display types.
LCD displays use liquid crystals that are sandwiched between two polarizing filters and illuminated by a backlight. The liquid crystals can change their orientation and block or allow light to pass through the filters. LCD displays can have different panel types, such as IPS (In-Plane Switching), VA (Vertical Alignment), or TN (Twisted Nematic), which affect the color accuracy, response time, and viewing angles of the display.
Plasma displays use gas-filled cells that are electrically charged to create plasma, which emits ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light then excites phosphors that emit visible light and color. Plasma displays can produce deep blacks and high contrast, but they are also prone to image retention, screen burn-in, and high power consumption.
VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, and it is not a display type but a video interface standard that was introduced in 1987. VGA can transmit analog signals from a computer to a monitor, but it has low resolution and limited color depth compared to modern digital standards such as HDMI or DisplayPort.
Therefore, OLED is the best display type for graphic designers who want the most accurate color spectrum and the widest viewing angles. OLED displays can also be thinner and lighter than LCD or Plasma displays, which makes them ideal for laptops. However, OLED displays are also more expensive and less durable than other display types, and they may suffer from image retention or burn-in over time.

NEW QUESTION 9

A technician powers on a PC and its monitor and sees the following error message: No input signal detected
The display lights on the computer are on. Which of the following is a possible solution?

• A. Changing the BIOS settings
• B. Changing the connector setting on the monitor
• C. Checking the power plug on the monitor
• D. Checking the power plug on the PC

Answer: B

Explanation:
Changing the connector setting on the monitor is a possible solution for a PC and its monitor that display the error message "No input signal detected". This error can be caused by an incorrect input selected on the monitor, so changing the connector setting to the correct input should resolve the issue. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 1.10
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NEW QUESTION 10

A help desk technician receives a ticket stating a printer has jammed several times today. The technician removes the jammed paper and notices the paper supply is low and the paper in the tray is wrinkled. Which of the following MOST likely caused the paper jams?

• A. High latency
• B. Page orientation
• C. Driver mismatch
• D. Multipage misfeed

Answer: D

Explanation:
A multipage misfeed is when more than one sheet of paper feeds into the printer at once, causing paper jams or misprints. A multipage misfeed can be caused by low paper supply or wrinkled paper in the tray, as reported by the user in this case. High latency is not related to paper jams, but to network delays or slow performance. Page orientation refers to whether the page is printed in portrait or landscape mode, which does not affect paper jams either. Driver mismatch could cause printing errors or compatibility issues, but not paper jams.

NEW QUESTION 11

A user connects a smartphone to a laptop. Which of the following types of networks has the user created?

• A. PAN
• B. MAN
• C. WLAN
• D. LAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a user connects a smartphone to a laptop, they create a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is a type of network used for communication between devices in close proximity to each other, typically within a range of a few meters or less. This type of network is commonly used for wireless communication between personal devices, such as connecting a smartphone to a laptop for file sharing or internet access. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 1.1 Explain common connectors and their uses.

NEW QUESTION 12

A technician is troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer. The technician determines that the odor is coming from inside the device.
Which of the following should the technician do first?

• A. Unplug the computer.
• B. Locate a fire extinguisher.
• C. Call the fire department.
• D. Remove the desktop cover.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A burning smell on a desktop computer is a serious issue that indicates a hardware malfunction or failure. It can be caused by overheating, a faulty power supply, a malfunctioning motherboard, or a short circuit12. If left unchecked, it can damage the components, cause a fire, or harm the user.
The first thing the technician should do when troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer is to unplug the computer from the power source. This will stop the flow of electricity and prevent further damage or fire. The technician should also wear protective gloves and eye wear to avoid contact with any hot or hazardous parts.
The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:
•Locating a fire extinguisher is a good precaution, but it should not be done before unplugging the computer. The fire extinguisher should only be used if there is visible smoke or flames coming from the computer, and only after unplugging it and ensuring that it is safe to do so.
•Calling the fire department is an extreme measure that should only be done if there is an actual fire that cannot be controlled by the fire extinguisher. It should not be done before unplugging the computer and trying to identify and fix the problem.
•Removing the desktop cover is a necessary step to inspect the internal components and find the source of the burning smell. However, it should not be done before unplugging the computer, as it can expose the technician to live wires and electric shocks.
For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot a burning smell on a desktop computer, you can visit these links:
•How to find the source of a burning smell in my computer?
•Burning Smell From PC? 10 Reasons Why It Could Happen

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following delivers internet over a copper medium?

• A. ONT
• B. SDN
• C. DSL
• D. WISP

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DSL.
DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a technology that delivers internet over a copper medium, such as a telephone line. DSL uses different frequencies than voice calls, so it can provide both internet and phone service simultaneously. DSL can offer faster
speeds than dial-up, but it depends on the distance from the service provider and the quality of the copper line .
The other options are not technologies that deliver internet over a copper medium. ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal, which is a device that converts optical signals from a fiber optic cable to electrical signals for a copper cable or a wireless router. ONT is used for fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet service, which delivers internet over a fiber optic medium. SDN stands for Software Defined Networking, which is a technology that allows network administrators to manage and control network resources and traffic using software applications. SDN is not related to the physical medium of internet delivery, but rather to the logical layer of network configuration and optimization. WISP stands for Wireless Internet Service Provider, which is a company that delivers internet over a wireless medium, such as radio waves or microwaves. WISP can provide internet access to rural or remote areas where wired connections are not available or feasible.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern with virtual machine escape?

• A. Cross-site scripting
• B. Compromising the hypervisor
• C. Overutilization of resources
• D. Rogue virtual machines installed on the hypervisor

Answer: B

Explanation:
The primary security concern with virtual machine escape is compromising the hypervisor, which can allow attackers to gain access to other virtual machines or the host system. Virtual machine escape refers to an attack that allows a guest virtual machine to break out of its isolated environment and access other parts of the system.

NEW QUESTION 15

A technician is relocating a router access point farther away from the modem to optimize signal coverage for a SOHO client. Which of the following will the technician most likely use
to complete the relocation? (Select two).

• A. Punchdown tool
• B. Crimper
• C. Clamp-style wire stripper
• D. Network tap
• E. Wi-Fi analyzer
• F. Loopback plug

Answer: BE

Explanation:
A crimper is a tool that is used to attach connectors to network cables, such as RJ-45 or RJ-11. A technician might need a crimper to create a longer cable for the router access point or to replace a damaged connector.
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a software or hardware tool that can scan and measure the wireless signal strength, interference, channel usage, and security of a Wi-Fi network. A technician might need a Wi-Fi analyzer to find the optimal location and configuration for the router access point to improve the signal coverage for the SOHO client.
References
•[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 77
•[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 82
•[What is a Crimper?]
•[What is a Wi-Fi Analyzer?]

NEW QUESTION 16

A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to check the status of a local network device in the least disruptive manner possible_ Which of the following tools should the technician use to accomplish this task?

• A. Network tap
• B. Cable tester
• C. Multimeter
• D. Tone generator

Answer: A

Explanation:
A network tap is a device that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic and data that pass through a network. A network tap can be inserted between two network devices, such as a switch and a router, and capture the packets that flow in both directions. A network tap can then send a copy of the packets to another device, such as a laptop or a server, for inspection and troubleshooting. A network tap can help diagnose and resolve network issues, such as performance, security, or configuration problems.
A network tap is the least disruptive tool for checking the status of a local network device, because it does not interfere with the normal operation of the network. A network tap does not alter or block the packets that it captures, and it does not introduce any latency or noise to the network. A network tap can also operate in stealth mode, which means that it is invisible to the network devices and cannot be detected by hackers or attackers.

NEW QUESTION 17
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