What Approved CS0-003 Real Exam Is

NEW QUESTION 1
A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server
logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?

• A. /etc/ shadow
• B. curl localhost
• C. ; printenv
• D. cat /proc/self/

Answer: A

Explanation:
/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server. Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References:
✑ https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
✑ https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
✑ https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 2
An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely reason the firewall feed stopped working?

• A. The firewall service account was locked out.
• B. The firewall was using a paid feed.
• C. The firewall certificate expired.
• D. The firewall failed open.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.

NEW QUESTION 3
A small company does no! have enough staff to effectively segregate duties to prevent error and fraud in payroll management. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decides to maintain and review logs and audit trails to mitigate risk. Which of the following did the CISO implement?

• A. Corrective controls
• B. Compensating controls
• C. Operational controls
• D. Administrative controls

Answer: B

Explanation:
Compensating controls are alternative controls that provide a similar level of protection as the original controls, but are used when the original controls are not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO implemented compensating controls by reviewing logs and audit trails to mitigate the risk of error and fraud in payroll management, since segregating duties was not possible due to the small staff size

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?

• A. SLA
• B. LOI
• C. MOU
• D. KPI

Answer: A

Explanation:
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable and specific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.

NEW QUESTION 5
A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
• DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
• The mean time between queries is less than one second.
• The average query length exceeds 100 characters. Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?

• A. DNS exfiltration
• B. DNS spoofing
• C. DNS zone transfer
• D. DNS poisoning

Answer: A

Explanation:
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:
✑ DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol
is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
✑ The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.
✑ The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.
Official References:
✑ https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
✑ https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
✑ https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/

NEW QUESTION 6
A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public. The current internal cloud network is flat. Which of the following is the best solution to secure the network?

• A. Implement segmentation with ACLs.
• B. Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.
• C. Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.
• D. Roll out an IDS.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Implementing segmentation with ACLs is the best solution to secure the network. Segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, or segments, based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Segmentation can help improve the network performance, scalability, and manageability, as well as enhance the network security by isolating the sensitive or critical data and systems from the rest of the network. ACLs are Access Control Lists, which are rules or policies that specify which users, devices, or applications can access a network segment or resource, and which actions they can perform. ACLs can help enforce the principle of least privilege, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the network segments or resources12. Configuring logging and monitoring to the SIEM, deploying MFA to cloud storage locations, and rolling out an IDS are all good security practices, but they are not the best solution to secure the network. Logging and monitoring to the SIEM can help detect and analyze the network events and incidents, but they do not prevent them. MFA can help authenticate the users who access the cloud storage locations, but it does not protect the network from attacks or breaches. IDS can help identify and alert the network intrusions, but it does not block them34 . References: Network Segmentation: What It Is and How to Do It Right, What is an Access Control List (ACL)? | IBM, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, [What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? | IBM]

NEW QUESTION 7
After updating the email client to the latest patch, only about 15% of the workforce is able to use email. Windows 10 users do not experience issues, but Windows 11 users have constant issues. Which of the
following did the change management team fail to do?

• A. Implementation
• B. Testing
• C. Rollback
• D. Validation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users. Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.
References: 7 Reasons Why Change Management Strategies Fail and How to Avoid Them, CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide

NEW QUESTION 8
A SOC analyst is analyzing traffic on a network and notices an unauthorized scan. Which of the following types of activities is being observed?

• A. Potential precursor to an attack
• B. Unauthorized peer-to-peer communication
• C. Rogue device on the network
• D. System updates

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:

Which of the following should be remediated first?

• A. SQL injection
• B. RFI
• C. XSS
• D. Code injection

Answer: A

Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface · Arachni/arachni Wiki
· GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode

NEW QUESTION 10
Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two).

• A. Signal-shielded bag
• B. Tamper-evident seal
• C. Thumb drive
• D. Crime scene tape
• E. Write blocker
• F. Drive duplicator

Answer: AB

Explanation:
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. ReferencesM: obile device forensics, Section: Acquisition

NEW QUESTION 11
A vulnerability scan of a web server that is exposed to the internet was recently completed. A security analyst is reviewing the resulting vector strings:
Vulnerability 1: CVSS: 3.0/AV:N/AC: L/PR: N/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I : L/A:L Vulnerability 2: CVSS: 3.0/AV: L/AC: H/PR:N/UI : N/S: U/C: L/I : L/A: H Vulnerability 3: CVSS: 3.0/AV:A/AC: H/PR: L/UI : R/S: U/C: L/I : H/A:L Vulnerability 4: CVSS: 3.0/AV: P/AC: L/PR: H/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I:N/A:L
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first?

• A. Vulnerability 1
• B. Vulnerability 2
• C. Vulnerability 3
• D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become?

• A. Hacklivist
• B. Advanced persistent threat
• C. Insider threat
• D. Script kiddie

Answer: C

Explanation:
The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization’s systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers.

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following would likely be used to update a dashboard that integrates…..

• A. Webhooks
• B. Extensible Markup Language
• C. Threat feed combination
• D. JavaScript Object Notation

Answer: D

Explanation:
JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is commonly used for transmitting data in web applications and would be suitable for updating dashboards that integrate various data sources. It's lightweight and easy to parse and generate.

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a reason why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?

• A. TO ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
• B. To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
• C. To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
• D. To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court.
Proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response because they ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in case it needs to be presented in court. Evidence that is mishandled, tampered with, or poorly documented may not be accepted by the court or may be challenged by the opposing party. Therefore, incident responders should follow the best practices and standards for evidence collection, preservation, analysis, and reporting1.
The other options are not reasons why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response. They are rather outcomes or benefits of conducting a thorough and effective incident response process. A lessons-learned analysis (B) is a way to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response team and improve their performance for future incidents. A postmortem analysis © is a way to determine the root cause, impact, and timeline of the incident and provide recommendations for remediation and prevention. A root cause analysis (D) is a way to identify the underlying factors that led to the incident and address them accordingly.

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the most important reason for an incident response team to develop a formal incident declaration?

• A. To require that an incident be reported through the proper channels
• B. To identify and document staff who have the authority to declare an incident
• C. To allow for public disclosure of a security event impacting the organization
• D. To establish the department that is responsible for responding to an incident

Answer: B

Explanation:
The formal incident declaration is crucial to identify and document the staff who have the authority to declare an incident, ensuring that incidents are handled by authorized personnel. ReferencesC: ompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

NEW QUESTION 16
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:

Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?

• A. 10.101.27.98
• B. 54.73.225.17
• C. 54.74.110.26
• D. 54.74.110.228

Answer: D

Explanation:
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019- 0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE- 2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.

NEW QUESTION 17
An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this describe?

• A. Delivery
• B. Command and control
• C. Reconnaissance
• D. Weaporization

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. ReferencesC: yber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin

NEW QUESTION 18
During a recent site survey. an analyst discovered a rogue wireless access point on the network. Which of the following actions should be taken first to protect the network while preserving evidence?

• A. Run a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and from the access point.
• B. Connect to the access point and examine its log files.
• C. Identify who is connected to the access point and attempt to find the attacker.
• D. Disconnect the access point from the network

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Disconnect the access point from the network.
A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has been installed on a network without the authorization or knowledge of the network administrator. A rogue access point can pose a serious security risk, as it can allow unauthorized users to access the network, intercept network traffic, or launch attacks against the network or its devices1234.
The first action that should be taken to protect the network while preserving evidence is to disconnect the rogue access point from the network. This will prevent any further damage or compromise of the network by blocking the access point from communicating with other devices or users. Disconnecting the rogue access point will also preserve its state and configuration, which can be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Disconnecting the rogue access point can be done physically by unplugging it from the network port or wirelessly by disabling its radio frequency5.
The other options are not the best actions to take first, as they may not protect the network or preserve evidence effectively.
Option A is not the best action to take first, as running a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and from the access point may not stop the rogue access point from causing harm to the network. A packet sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network packets, which are units of data that travel across a network. A packet sniffer can be useful for identifying and troubleshooting network problems, but it may not be able to prevent or block malicious traffic from a rogue access point. Moreover, running a packet sniffer may require additional time and resources, which could delay the response and mitigation of the incident5.
Option B is not the best action to take first, as connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Connecting to the access point may expose the analyst’s device or credentials to potential attacks or compromise by the rogue access point. Examining its log files may provide some information about the origin and activity of the rogue access point, but it may also alter or delete some evidence that could be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Furthermore, connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from continuing to harm the network5.
Option C is not the best action to take first, as identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Identifying who is connected to the access point may require additional tools or techniques, such as scanning for wireless devices or analyzing network traffic, which could take time and resources away from responding and mitigating the incident. Attempting to find the attacker may also be difficult or impossible, as the attacker may use various methods to hide their identity or location, such as encryption, spoofing, or proxy servers. Moreover, identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from causing further damage or compromise to the network5.
References:
✑ 1 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives
✑ 2 Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA
✑ 3 CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide
✑ 4 CertMaster Learn for CySA+ Training - CompTIA
✑ 5 How to Protect Against Rogue Access Points on Wi-Fi - Byos
✑ 6 Wireless Access Point Protection: 5 Steps to Find Rogue Wi-Fi Networks …
✑ 7 Rogue Access Point - Techopedia
✑ 8 Rogue access point - Wikipedia
✑ 9 What is a Rogue Access Point (Rogue AP)? - Contextual Security

NEW QUESTION 19
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which of
the following best describes what the security program did?

• A. Data enrichment
• B. Security control plane
• C. Threat feed combination
• D. Single pane of glass

Answer: D

Explanation:
A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity- exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

NEW QUESTION 20
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