A Review Of Simulation N10-008 Practice Question

NEW QUESTION 1

A technician was cleaning a storage closet and found a box of transceivers labeled 8Gbps. Which of the following protocols uses those transceivers?

• A. Coaxial over Ethernet
• B. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface
• C. Fibre Channel
• D. Gigabit interface converter

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology that is mainly used for storage area networks (SANs). It provides reliable and secure data transfer between servers and storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes. It uses protocols such as SCSI, FCP, and FICON to transport data over optical fiber or copper cables678 Fibre Channel transceivers are devices that convert electrical signals to optical signals and vice versa, and allow Fibre Channel devices to communicate over different media types
and distances. They are usually pluggable modules that fit into standard ports on Fibre Channel switches, adapters, and storage devices. They have different specifications and standards, such as SFP, SFP+, QSFP, and CFP, depending on the data rate, wavelength, and cable type they support.
8 Gbps transceivers are Fibre Channel transceivers that support a data rate of 8 gigabits per second, which is also known as Fibre Channel-8G or 8GFC. They are typically SFP+ modules that use 850 nm wavelength and multimode fiber for short-reach applications, or 1310 nm wavelength and single-mode fiber for long-reach applications. They can support cable distances up to 10 km or 40 km, depending on the fiber type and quality.

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following devices have the capability to allow communication between two different subnetworks? (Select TWO).

• A. IDS
• B. Access point
• C. Layer 2 switch
• D. Layer 3 switch
• E. Router
• F. Media converter

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 3

A SaaS provider has decided to leave an unpatched VM available via a public DMZ port. With which of the following concepts is this technique MOST closely associated?

• A. Insider threat
• B. War driving
• C. Evil twin
• D. Honeypot

Answer: D

Explanation:
A honeypot is a decoy system that is intentionally left vulnerable or exposed to attract attackers and divert them from the real targets. A honeypot can also be used to collect information about the attackers’ techniques and motives. In the scenario, the SaaS provider has left an unpatched VM available via a public DMZ port, which could be a honeypot technique to lure attackers and monitor their activities. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-honeypot

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the Mowing architectures reduces network latency by enforcing a limit on the number of switching devices on the frame's path between any internal hosts?

• A. Spine and leaf
• B. Software-defined network
• C. Three-tiered
• D. Collapsed core

Answer: A

Explanation:
It does this by using a two-level hierarchy of switches, where the spine switches connect to the leaf switches, which in turn connect to the end hosts. This reduces the number of hops a packet must take from one host to another, thus reducing latency. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide, the Spine and Leaf topology is a modern architecture that is used to reduce latency in large networks.

NEW QUESTION 5

The Chief Executive Officer of a company wants to ensure business operations are not disrupted in the event of a disaster. The solution must have fully redundant equipment, real-time synchronization, and zero data loss. Which Of the following should be prepared?

• A. Cloud site
• B. Warm site
• C. Hot site
• D. Cold site

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hot site is a backup site that is fully equipped and ready to take over the operations of the primary site in the event of a disaster. A hot site has real-time synchronization with the primary site and can provide zero data loss. A hot site is the most expensive and reliable option for disaster recovery.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.3: Explain common scanning, monitoring and patching processes and summarize their expected outputs.

NEW QUESTION 6

A technician receives feedback that some users are experiencing high amounts of jitter while using the wireless network. While troubleshooting the network, the technician uses the ping command with the IP address of the default gateway and verifies large variations in latency. The technician thinks the issue may be interference from other networks and non-802.11 devices. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?

• A. NetFlow analyzer
• B. Bandwidth analyzer
• C. Protocol analyzer
• D. Spectrum analyzer

Answer: D

Explanation:
A spectrum analyzer is a tool that measures the frequency and amplitude of signals in a wireless network. It can be used to troubleshoot issues related to interference from other networks and non-802.11 devices, such as microwave ovens or cordless phones, by identifying the sources and levels of interference in the wireless spectrum. A spectrum analyzer can also help to optimize the channel selection and placement of wireless access points. References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default- source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.flukenetworks.com/blog/cabling-chronicles/what-spectrum-analyzer-and-how- do-you-use-it

NEW QUESTION 7

A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light
does not come on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?

• A. Reverse the fibers.
• B. Reterminate the fibers.
• C. Verify the fiber size.
• D. Examine the cable runs for visual faults.

Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the most common causes of fiber connectivity issues is the reversal of the fibers. This means that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) ports on one end of the fiber link are not matched with the corresponding ports on the other end. For example, if the TX port on one device is connected to the TX port on another device, and the same for the RX ports, then the devices will not be able to communicate with each other. This can result in no indicator light, no link, or no data transmission12.
To troubleshoot this issue, the technician should first try to reverse the fibers. This can be done by swapping the connectors at one end of the fiber patch cable, or by using a crossover adapter or cable that reverses the polarity of the fibers. The technician should then check if the indicator light comes on and if the devices can communicate properly12. The other options are not the first steps to troubleshoot this issue. Reterminating the fibers is a time-consuming and costly process that should be done only if there is evidence of physical damage or poor quality of the termination. Verifying the fiber size is not relevant in this scenario, as multimode fiber is compatible with multimode fiber, and any mismatch in core diameter or bandwidth would result in high attenuation, not complete loss of signal. Examining the cable runs for visual faults is a useful technique, but it requires a special tool called a visual fault locator (VFL) that emits a visible red light through the fiber and shows any breaks or bends along the cable. However, a VFL cannot detect polarity issues or connector problems, so it is not sufficient to troubleshoot this issue

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following is most likely to be implemented to actively mitigate intrusions on a host device?

• A. HIDS
• B. MDS
• C. HIPS
• D. NIPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
HIDS (host-based intrusion detection system) is a type of security software that monitors and analyzes the activity on a host device, such as a computer or a server. HIDS can detect and alert on intrusions, such as malware infections, unauthorized access, configuration changes, or policy violations. HIDS can also actively mitigate intrusions by blocking or quarantining malicious processes, files, or network connections1.
HIPS (host-based intrusion prevention system) is similar to HIDS, but it can also prevent intrusions from happening in the first place by enforcing security policies and rules on the host device2. MDS (multilayer switch) is a network device that combines the functions of a switch and a router, and it does not directly protect a host device from intrusions3. NIPS (network-based intrusion prevention system) is a network device that monitors and blocks malicious traffic on the network level, and it does not operate on the host device level4.

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following uses the link-state routing algorithm and operates within a single autonomous system?

• A. EIGRP
• B. OSPF
• C. RIP
• D. BGP

Answer: B

Explanation:
OSPF uses a link state routing algorithm and falls into the group of interior routing protocols, operating within a single autonomous system (AS). OSPF is perhaps the most widely used interior gateway protocol (IGP) in large enterprise networks

NEW QUESTION 10

An employee reports to a network administrator that internet access is not working. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST?

• A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
• B. Identify symptoms.
• C. Determine if anything has changed.
• D. Ask the user to restart the computer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a user reports that internet access is not working, it is important to first determine if there have been any recent changes to the network or the user's computer that could have caused the issue. This could include changes to the network configuration, the installation of new software or hardware, or other events that could have impacted the user's ability to access the internet. By determining if anything has changed, the administrator can narrow down the possible causes of the issue and focus on addressing the most likely cause.

NEW QUESTION 11

An engineer is configuring redundant network links between switches. Which of the following should the engineer enable to prevent network stability issues?

• A. 802.1Q
• B. STP
• C. Flow control
• D. CSMA/CD

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) should be enabled when configuring redundant network links between switches. STP ensures that only one active path is used at a time, preventing network loops and stability issues.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide

NEW QUESTION 12

A network administrator received reports that a 40Gb connection is saturated. The only server the administrator can use for data collection in that location has a 10Gb connection to the network. Which of the following is the best method to use on the server to determine the source of the saturation?

• A. Port mirroring
• B. Log aggregation
• C. Flow data
• D. Packet capture

Answer: C

Explanation:
Flow data is a summary of network traffic that can be used to monitor and analyze network performance, utilization, and security. Flow data can provide information such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, bytes, packets, and timestamps. Flow data can be collected using protocols such as NetFlow, sFlow, or IPFIX. Flow data can help identify the source of network saturation without requiring a full packet capture, which would be impractical on a 40Gb connection with a 10Gb server.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 51
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 11: Switching Technologies2

NEW QUESTION 13

A network technician needs to correlate security events to analyze a suspected intrusion. Which of the following should the technician use?

• A. SNMP
• B. Log review
• C. Vulnerability scanning
• D. SIEM

Answer: D

Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a tool that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from various network devices and sources to provide alerts and reports on security incidents and events. A network technician can use SIEM to correlate security events to analyze a suspected intrusion, as SIEM can help identify the source, target, method, and impact of an attack, as well as provide recommendations for remediation. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-siem

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following can be used to aggregate logs from different devices and would make analysis less difficult?

• A. Syslog
• B. SIEM
• C. Event logs
• D. NetFlow

Answer: B

Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, and it is a system that collects, normalizes, and analyzes log data from different sources in a centralized platform. SIEM can help identify security incidents, monitor network performance, and generate reports and alerts. SIEM can make log analysis less difficult by providing a unified view of the log data, correlating events across different devices, and applying rules and filters to detect anomalies and patterns12.
References: 1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - Chapter 14: Network Monitoring32: Log Aggregation: What It Is & How It Works | Datadog4

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following ports is commonly used by VoIP phones?

• A. 20
• B. 143
• C. 445
• D. 5060

Answer: D

Explanation:
TCP/UDP port 5060 is commonly used by VoIP phones. It is the default port for SIP (Session Initiation Protocol), which is a signaling protocol that establishes, modifies, and terminates multimedia sessions over IP networks. SIP is widely used for VoIP applications such as voice and video calls. References: https://www.voip-info.org/session- initiation-protocol/

NEW QUESTION 16

A company wants to invest in new hardware for the core network infrastructure. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails. Which of the following metrics is MOST likely associated with this requirement?

• A. RPO
• B. MTTR
• C. FHRP
• D. MTBF

Answer: B

Explanation:
MTTR is directly related to how quickly a system can be repaired if any major part fails3. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes, which means they have a low MTTR requirement.
MTTR stands for Mean Time To Repair and is a metric used to measure the average amount of time it takes to repair a failed component or system. In this case, the requirement is for the infrastructure to be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails, which means the MTTR should be less than 60 minutes.

NEW QUESTION 17

A sales team at a company uses a SaaS solution primarily for videoconferencing and a CRM application that connects to a database server in the corporate data center. Which of the following VPN solutions would allow secure, remote access for sales staff to the CRM application without impacting videoconferencing traffic?

• A. Clientless
• B. Site-to-site
• C. Split tunnel
• D. Full tunnel

Answer: A

Explanation:
A split tunnel VPN solution would allow secure, remote access for sales staff to the CRM application without impacting videoconferencing traffic. A VPN stands for virtual private network, which is a secure connection between two or more devices over a public
network, such as the internet. A VPN encrypts and authenticates the data, ensuring its confidentiality and integrity. A split tunnel VPN is a type of VPN that allows some traffic to go through the VPN tunnel, while other traffic goes directly to the internet. This can improve performance and bandwidth utilization by reducing unnecessary encryption and routing overhead. By using a split tunnel VPN, sales staff can access the CRM application that connects to a database server in the corporate data center through the VPN tunnel, while using online videoconferencing services through their local internet
connection. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Split Tunneling? | NordVPN

NEW QUESTION 18
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