All About Accurate SK0-005 Actual Exam

NEW QUESTION 1
An administrator is configuring a server that will host a high-performance financial application. Which of the following disk types will serve this purpose?

• A. SAS SSD
• B. SATA SSD
• C. SAS drive with 10000rpm
• D. SATA drive with 15000rpm

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best disk type for a high-performance financial application is a SAS SSD. A SAS SSD (Serial Attached SCSI Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory chips to store data and has a SAS interface to connect to a server or a storage array. A SAS SSD offers high speed, low latency, high reliability, and high durability compared to other types of disks, such as SATA SSDs, SAS HDDs, or SATA HDDs. A SAS SSD can handle high I/O workloads and deliver consistent performance for applications that require fast data access and processing.
Reference:
https://www.hp.com/us-en/shop/tech-takes/sas-vs-sata

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician is decommissioning a server from a production environment. The technician removes the server from the rack but then decides to repurpose the system as a lab server instead of decommissioning it. Which of the following is the most appropriate NEXT step to recycle and reuse the system drives?

• A. Reinstall the OS.
• B. Wipe the drives.
• C. Degauss the drives.
• D. Update the IP schema.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Wiping the drives is the most appropriate step to recycle and reuse the system drives. Wiping the drives means erasing all the data on the drives and overwriting them with random or meaningless data. This can help prevent data leakage, comply with regulations, and prepare the drives for a new installation or configuration. Wiping the drives is different from deleting or formatting the drives, which only remove the references to the data but not the data itself.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam- objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 1.3)

NEW QUESTION 3
Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?

• A. Connect the server to a KVM
• B. Use cable management
• C. Connect the server to a redundant network
• D. Connect the server to a UPS

Answer: D

Explanation:
The administrator should connect the server to a UPS to prevent this situation in the future. A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device that provides backup power to a server or other device in case of a power outage or surge. A UPS typically consists of one or more batteries and an inverter that converts the battery power into AC power that the server can use. A UPS can also protect the server from power fluctuations that can damage its components or cause data corruption. By connecting the server to a UPS, the administrator can ensure that the server will continue to run or shut down gracefully during a power failure.

NEW QUESTION 4
A company needs a media server set up that provides the highest availability with a minimum requirement of at least 10TB. The company purchased five HDDs, each with a 4TB
capacity. Which of the options would provide the highest fault tolerance and meet the requirements?

• A. RAID 0
• B. RAID 5
• C. RAID 6
• D. RAID 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
RAID 6 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. It can tolerate the failure of up to two disks without losing any data. RAID 6 can provide a minimum of 10TB of usable storage space with five 4TB disks, as the formula for calculating the RAID 6 capacity is (n-2) x Smin, where n is the number of disks and Smin is the smallest disk size. In this case, the RAID 6 capacity is (5-2) x 4TB = 12TB. References:
✑ CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8
✑ RAID Levels and Types Explained: Advantages and Disadvantages2
✑ RAID Levels & Fault Tolerance3

NEW QUESTION 5
An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server’s console?

• A. IP KVM
• B. VNC
• C. A crash cart
• D. RDP
• E. SSH

Answer: A

Explanation:
The administrator should use an IP KVM to access the server’s console remotely for bare-metal maintenance. An IP KVM stands for Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse, which is a device that allows remote control of a server’s keyboard, video, and mouse over a network connection, such as LAN or Internet. An IP KVM enables an administrator to perform tasks such as BIOS configuration, boot sequence selection, operating system installation, etc., without being physically present at the server location. The other options are not suitable for bare-metal maintenance because they require either physical access to the server (a crash cart) or an operating system running on the server (VNC, RDP, SSH). A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and cables that can be plugged into a server for direct access to its console. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing, which is a software that allows remote desktop sharing and control over a network connection using a graphical user interface (GUI). RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop access and control over a network connection using a GUI or command-line interface (CLI). SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI.

NEW QUESTION 6
A server shut down after an extended power outage. When power was restored, the system failed to start. A few seconds into booting, the Num Lock, Scroll Lock, and Caps Lock LEDs flashed several times, and the system stopped. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

• A. The keyboard is defective and needs to be replaced.
• B. The system failed before the display card initialized.
• C. The power supply is faulty and is shutting down the system.
• D. The NIC has failed, and the system cannot make a network connection.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of the issue because the keyboard LED flash indicates a POST error code. If the display card is not initialized, the system cannot show any error messages on the screen and will stop booting. References:https://www.computerhope.com/beep.htm#04

NEW QUESTION 7
A server technician downloaded new firmware from the manufacturer's website. The technician then attempted to install the firmware on the server, but the installation failed, stating the file is potentially corrupt. Which of the following should the technician have checked prior to installing the firmware?

• A. DLF configuration
• B. MBR failure
• C. ECC support
• D. MD5 checksum

Answer: D

Explanation:
A MD5 checksum is a value that is calculated from a file using a cryptographic hash function. A MD5 checksum is used to verify the integrity of a file by comparing it with the original value provided by the manufacturer or the source. If the MD5 checksums match, it means that the file is authentic and has not been corrupted or tampered with. If the MD5 checksums do not match, it means that the file is potentially corrupt or malicious and should not be installed12. A DLF configuration (A) is a setting that determines how a dynamic link library (DLL) is loaded into memory and executed by an application. A DLF configuration does not check the integrity of a file. A MBR failure (B) is a problem that occurs when the master boot record (MBR) of a disk is damaged or corrupted, preventing the system from booting. A MBR failure does not check the integrity of a file. ECC support © is a feature that enables error-correcting code (ECC) memory to detect and correct data errors inRAM. ECC support does not check the integrity of a file. References:
1 https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/file-integrity-monitoring-tools2/ https://csrc.nist.gov/CSRC/media/Presentations/Firmware-Integrity-Verification-Monitoring-and-Re/images-media/day2_demonstration_330-420.pdf

NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following licenses would MOST likely include vendor assistance?

• A. Open-source
• B. Version compatibility
• C. Subscription
• D. Maintenance and support

Answer: D

Explanation:
Maintenance and support is a type of license that would most likely include vendor assistance. Maintenance and support is a contract that defines the level and scope of service and assistance that a vendor provides to a customer for using their software product. Maintenance and support may include technical support, bug fixes, patches, updates, upgrades, documentation, training, and other benefits. Maintenance and support licenses usually have an annual fee based on the number of users or devices covered by the contract. Open-source is a type of license that allows free access to the source code and modification and distribution of the software product, but does not guarantee vendor assistance. Version compatibility is not a type of license, but a feature that ensures software products can work with different versions of operating systems or other software products. Subscription is a type of license that allows access to software products for a limited period of time based on recurring payments, but does not necessarily include vendor assistance.References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1440/software- licensinghttps://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis-bia

NEW QUESTION 9
A server administrator is reviewing the following specifications: VM01 Host:
CPU: 2 Physical, 4 Cores RAM: 16GB
Storage: 16TB Server 1 on VM01:
CPU: 1 virtual socket, 1 core per socket RAM: 4GB
Storage: 8TB Server 2 on VM01:
CPU: 2 virtual sockets, 2 cores per socket RAM: 8GB
Storage: 10TB
Which of the following is described given these specifications?

• A. Virtual switch
• B. Host v
• C. guest
• D. Overprovisioning
• E. Scalability

Answer: C

Explanation:
Overprovisioning is a situation where the allocated resources for a virtual machine exceed the available resources of the physical host. In this case, the storage allocated for Server 1 and Server 2 on VM01 is 8TB and 10TB respectively, which adds up to 18TB. However, the storage available on the VM01 host is only 16TB, which means there is a 2TB deficit. This can cause performance issues and errors for the virtual machines.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8
Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management, Module 2, Lesson 5

NEW QUESTION 10
A technician is able to copy a Me to a temporary folder on another partition but is unable to copy it to a network share or a USB flash drive. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing the file from being copied to certain locations?

• A. An ACL
• B. Antivirus
• C. DLP
• D. A firewall

Answer: C

Explanation:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is a security measure that prevents unauthorized copying, transferring, or leaking of sensitive data from a server or a network. It can block or alert the user when they try to copy a file to certain locations, such as a network share or a USB flash drive, based on predefined policies and rules. Verified References: [DLP], [Data loss]

NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following types of asset management documentation is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component?

• A. Warranty
• B. Purchase order
• C. License
• D. Baseline document

Answer: A

Explanation:
A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure?

• A. Midplane
• B. Active backplane
• C. Passive backplane
• D. Management module

Answer: A

Explanation:
The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.

NEW QUESTION 13
IDS alerts indicate abnormal traffic patterns are coming from a specific server in a data center that hosts sensitive data. Upon further investigation, the server administrator notices this server has been infected with a virus due to an exploit of a known vulnerability from its database software. Which of the following should the administrator perform after removing the virus to mitigate this issue from reoccurring and to maintain high availability? (Select three).

• A. Run a vulnerability scanner on the server.
• B. Repartition the hard drive that houses the database.
• C. Patch the vulnerability.
• D. Enable a host firewall.
• E. Reformat the OS on the server.
• F. Update the antivirus software.
• G. Remove the database software.
• H. Air gap the server from the network.

Answer: ACF

Explanation:
After removing the virus from the server, the administrator should perform the following actions to mitigate the issue from reoccurring and to maintain high availability:
✑ Run a vulnerability scanner on the server to identify any other potential weaknesses or exposures that could be exploited by attackers.
✑ Patch the vulnerability that allowed the virus to infect the server in the first place, using the latest updates from the database software vendor or a trusted source.
✑ Update the antivirus software on the server to ensure it has the most recent virus definitions and can detect and prevent future infections. The other options are either unnecessary or counterproductive for this scenario. Repartitioning the hard drive, reformatting the OS, removing the database software, or air gapping the server from the network would cause downtime and data loss, while enabling a host firewall would not prevent a virus infection from within the network. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario involving a security threat/vulnerability/risk, implement appropriate mitigation techniques.

NEW QUESTION 14
A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

• A. Memory
• B. Page file
• C. Services
• D. Application
• E. CPU
• F. Heartbeat

Answer: AE

Explanation:
Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following script types would MOST likely be used on a modern Windows server OS?

• A. Batch
• B. VBS
• C. Bash
• D. PowerShell

Answer: D

Explanation:
PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that is designed for Windows server administration. It can perform various tasks such as configuration, automation, and management of servers and applications. Verified References: [PowerShell], [Scripting language]

NEW QUESTION 16
An administrate is helping to replicate a large amount of data between two Windows servers. The administrator is unsure how much data has already been transferred. Which of the following will BEST ensure all the data is copied consistently?

• A. rsync
• B. copy
• C. scp
• D. robocopy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Robocopy (Robust File Copy) is a command-line tool that can copy files and folders between Windows servers or computers. It has many features and options that can ensure all the data is copied consistently, such as retrying failed copies, resuming interrupted copies, copying permissions and attributes, mirroring source and destination directories, and logging the copy progress and results. Verified References: [Robocopy], [File copy]

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following describes the installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation?

• A. Host
• B. Bridge
• C. Hypervisor
• D. Guest

Answer: D

Explanation:
The installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation is described as a guest. A guest is a term that refers to a virtual machine (VM) that runs on top of a host operating system (OS) using a hypervisor or a virtualization software. A guest can have a different OS than the host, and can run multiple applications or services independently from the host. A guest can also be isolated from the host and other guests for security or testing purposes.

NEW QUESTION 18
A user can successfully connect to a database server from a home office but is unable to access it from a hotel room. Which of the following authentication methods is most likely
configured?

• A. Delegation
• B. Role-based
• C. Rule-based
• D. Scope-based

Answer: D

Explanation:
Scope-based authentication is a method of restricting access to resources based on the location, network, or device of the user. It can be used to prevent unauthorized access from outside the organization’s network or from untrusted devices. In this case, the user can connect to the database server from the home office, which is likely within the scope of the authentication policy, but not from the hotel room, which is outside the scope.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 15 CompTIA Server+: Authentication & Authorization2

NEW QUESTION 19
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