Tested CompTIA SK0-005 Exam Price Online

NEW QUESTION 1
A server technician has received reports of database update errors. The technician checks the server logs and determines the database is experiencing synchronization errors. To attempt to correct the errors, the technician should FIRST ensure:

• A. the correct firewall zone is active
• B. the latest firmware was applied
• C. NTP is running on the database system
• D. the correct dependencies are installed

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first thing that the technician should ensure to correct the database synchronization errors is that NTP is running on the database system. NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of network devices with a reference time source, such as an atomic clock or a GPS receiver. NTP ensures that all devices on a network have accurate and consistent time settings, which can affect various functions and applications. Database synchronization is a process of maintaining data consistency and integrity across multiple database servers or instances. Database synchronization can depend on accurate time settings, as time stamps are often used to determine which data is newer or older, and which data should be updated or overwritten. If NTP is not running on the database system, it may cause time drift or discrepancy between different database servers or instances, which can result in synchronization errors or data conflicts.

NEW QUESTION 2
A server in a remote datacenter is no longer responsive. Which of the following is the BEST solution to investigate this failure?

• A. Remote desktop
• B. Access via a crash cart
• C. Out-of-band management
• D. A Secure Shell connection

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best solution to investigate the failure of a server in a remote datacenter is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server or a device using a dedicated channel that is separate from its normal network connection. Out-of-band management can use various technologies, such as serial ports, modems, KVM switches, or dedicated management cards or interfaces. Out- of-band management can provide remote access to servers or devices even when they are powered off, unresponsive, or disconnected from the network. Out-of-band management
can enable troubleshooting, configuration, maintenance, or recovery tasks without requiring physical presence at the server location.
Reference:
https://www.lantronix.com/wp-content/uploads/pdf/Data_Center_Mgmt_WP.pdf

NEW QUESTION 3
A systems administrator has several different types of hard drives. The administrator is setting up a MAS that will allow end users to see all the drives within the NAS. Which of the following storage types should the administrator use?

• A. RAID array
• B. Serial Attached SCSI
• C. Solid-state drive
• D. Just a bunch of disks

Answer: D

Explanation:
JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration that combines different types and sizes of hard drives into one logical unit without any RAID level or redundancy. It allows users to see all the drives within the unit as one large storage space. JBOD can utilize all the available capacity of the drives but does not provide any performance or fault tolerance benefits. Verified References: [JBOD], [RAID]

NEW QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers a misconfiguration that impacts all servers but can be easily corrected. The administrator has a list of affected servers and a script to correct the issue. Which of the following scripting principles should the administrator use to cycle through the list of servers to deliver the needed change?

• A. Linked list
• B. String
• C. Loop
• D. Constant

Answer: C

Explanation:
A loop is a programming construct that allows a block of code to be executed repeatedly until a certain condition is met1. A loop can be used to cycle through a list of servers and run a script on each one of them. For example, in Python, a loop can be written as: Python
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# Assume servers is a list of server names forserverinservers:
# Run the script on the server run_script(server)
A loop can help automate the task of correcting the misconfiguration on all servers, saving time and effort.

NEW QUESTION 5
A technician is unable to access a server’s package repository internally or externally. Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons? (Choose two.)

• A. The server has an architecture mismatch
• B. The system time is not synchronized
• C. The technician does not have sufficient privileges
• D. The external firewall is blocking access
• E. The default gateway is incorrect
• F. The local system log file is full

Answer: DE

Explanation:
The most likely reasons why the technician is unable to access a server’s package repository internally or externally are that the external firewall is blocking access and that the default gateway is incorrect. A package repository is a source of software packages that can be installed or updated on a server using a package manager tool. A package repository can be accessed over a network using a URL or an IP address. However, if there are any network issues or misconfigurations, the access to the package repository can be blocked or failed. An external firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. An external firewall can block access to a package repository if it does not allow traffic on
certain ports or protocols that are used by the package manager tool. A default gateway is a device or address that routes network traffic from one network to another network. A default gateway can be incorrect if it does not match the actual device or address that connects the server’s network to other networks, such as the internet. An incorrect default gateway can prevent the server from reaching the package repository over other networks.

NEW QUESTION 6
An administrator is configuring a new server for use as a database server. It will have two mirrored drives to hold the operating system, and there will be three drive bays remaining for storage Which of the following RAID levels will yield the BEST combination of available space and redundancy?

• A. RAID
• B. RAID 1
• C. RAIDS
• D. RAID 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAID 10 is the RAID level that will yield the best combination of available space and redundancy when configuring a new server for use as a database server with two mirrored drives for the operating system and three drive bays remaining for storage. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combinesdisk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 10 provides high performance, fault tolerance, and fast recovery, but it reduces storage capacity by half. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 1 is a RAID configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 5 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive’s worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an- hour/https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and- 0.0.0.0/

NEW QUESTION 7
A server technician is deploying a server with eight hard drives. The server specifications call for a RAID configuration that can handle up to two drive failures but also allow for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician configure for this drive array?

• A. RAID 0
• B. RAID 5
• C. RAID 6
• D. RAID 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information foreach stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.
Reference:
https://www.booleanworld.com/raid-levels-explained/

NEW QUESTION 8
A company wants to deploy software to all users, Out very few of men will be using the software at any one point in time. Which of the following licensing models would be BEST lot the company?

• A. Per site
• B. Per concurrent user
• C. Per core
• D. Per instance

Answer: B

Explanation:
Per concurrent user licensing is a model that allows a fixed number of users to access the software at any one point in time. This model is best for the company that wants to deploy software to all users, but very few of them will be using the software at any one point in time. This way, the company can save money by paying only for the number of simultaneous users, rather than for every user who has access to the software. Per site licensing is a model that allows unlimited users within a specific location to use the software. Per core licensing is a model that charges based on the number of processor cores on the server where the software is installed. Per instance licensing is a model that charges based on the number of copies of the software running on different servers or virtual machines.References: https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/concurrent-use-licensehttps://www.techopedia.com/definition/1440/software-licensing

NEW QUESTION 9
A server administrator wants to check the open ports on a server. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to complete the task?

• A. nslookup
• B. nbtstat
• C. telnet
• D. netstat -a

Answer: D

Explanation:
netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more. The -a option shows all listening and non-listening sockets on the server. This can help check the open ports on a server and identify any unwanted or malicious connections.References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following would a systems administrator most likely implement to encrypt data in transit for remote administration?

• A. Telnet
• B. SSH
• C. TFTP
• D. rlogin

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that would most likely be implemented to encrypt data in transit for remote administration. SSH provides secure communication between two devices over an unsecured network by using public-key cryptography and symmetric encryption. SSH can be used to remotely execute commands, transfer files, or tunnel other protocols. Telnet, TFTP, and rlogin are protocols that do not encrypt data in transit and are considered insecure for remote administration. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving network security/access methods, implement an appropriate solution.

NEW QUESTION 11
A technician installed a kernel upgrade to a Linux server. The server now crashes regularly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

• A. Necessary dependencies were installed for multiple architectures.
• B. There is not enough hard drive space.
• C. The server is infected with a virus.
• D. Some modules are not compatible.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A kernel upgrade is a process of updating the core component of a Linux operating system that manages the hardware, memory, processes, and drivers. A kernel upgrade can improve the performance, security, and compatibility of the system, but it can also introduce errors if some modules are not compatible with the new kernel version. Modules are pieces of code that can be loaded and unloaded into the kernel to provide additional functionality or support for specific devices. If a module is not compatible with the kernel, it can cause crashes or instability.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.2, Objective 4.2

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of right to downgrade?

• A. It allows for the return of a new OS license if the newer OS is not compatible with the currently installed software and is returning to the previously used OS
• B. It allows a server to run on fewer resources than what is outlined in the minimum requirements document without purchasing a license
• C. It allows for a previous version of an OS to be deployed in a test environment for each current license that is purchased
• D. It allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version

Answer: D

Explanation:
The concept of right to downgrade allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version. For example, if a customer has a license for Windows 10 Pro, they can choose to install Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 7 Professional instead and still be compliant with the license terms. Downgrade rights are granted by Microsoft for certain products and programs, such as Windows and Windows Server software acquired through Commercial Licensing, OEM, or retail channels. Downgrade rights are intended to provide customers with flexibility and compatibility when using Microsoft software.

NEW QUESTION 13
An administrator is tasked with building an environment consisting of four servers that can each serve the same website. Which of the following concepts is
described?

• A. Load balancing
• B. Direct access
• C. Overprovisioning
• D. Network teaming

Answer: A

Explanation:
Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.

NEW QUESTION 14
A company wants to find an affordable way to simulate a fail over of a critical application. The company does not currently have a solution for it. The application consists of 15 servers, and the company would like to simulate on production configurations and IP address schemes. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution?

• A. Build a warm site and perform a fail over of the application.
• B. Build a cloud laaS and perform a fail over of the application.
• C. Build a hot site and perform a fail over of the application.
• D. Build a cold site and perform a fail over of the application.
• E. Perform a tabletop fail over of the application.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cloud IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a service model that allows users to rent virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as servers, storage, network, and software. Cloud IaaS can provide several benefits for disaster recovery and failover scenarios, such as:
✑ Lower cost: Cloud IaaS can reduce the capital and operational expenses of
building and maintaining a physical disaster recovery site, asusers only pay for the resources they use on demand12.
✑ Scalability: Cloud IaaS can offer flexible and elastic scalability of resources, as
users can easily provision or deprovision resources according to their needs and workload12.
✑ Availability: Cloud IaaS can ensure high availability and reliability of the
application, as users can leverage the cloud provider’s redundant and geographically distributed infrastructure12.
✑ Simplicity:Cloud IaaS can simplify the failover process, as users can use the cloud provider’s tools and services to automate and orchestrate the failover operations12.
Therefore, building a cloud IaaS and performing a failover of the application would be the most cost-effective solution for the company, as it would allow them to simulate a failover of a critical application on production configurations and IP address schemes without investing in a physical disaster recovery site.

NEW QUESTION 15
A data center environment currently hosts more than 100 servers that include homegrown and commercial software. The management team has asked the server administrator to find a way to eliminate all company-owned data centers. Which of the following models will the administrator most likely choose to meet this need?

• A. SaaS
• B. Private
• C. Public
• D. Hybrid

Answer: C

Explanation:
A public cloud model will most likely meet the need of eliminating all company-owned data centers. A public cloud is a type of cloud computing service that is provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. A public cloud offers scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness for hosting servers and applications, as the customers only pay for the resources they use and do not have to maintain their own infrastructure. A public cloud can also provide high availability, security, and performance for the servers and applications, as the vendor manages the underlying hardware and software. A public cloud can support various types of services, such as software as a service (SaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), or infrastructure as a service (IaaS). References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Administration, Objective 1.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast server roles and requirements for each.

NEW QUESTION 16
A technician is working on a Linux server. The customer has reported that files in the home directory are missing. The /etc/ f stab file has the following entry:
nfsserver:/home /home nfs defaults 0 0
However, a df -h /home command returns the following information:
/dev/sda2 10G 1G 9G 10% /home
Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST to resolve the issue?

• A. mkdir /home
• B. umount nfsserver:/home
• C. rmdir nfsserver:/home/dev/sda2
• D. mount /home

Answer: B

Explanation:
The /etc/fstab file contains the information about the file systems that are mounted automatically at boot time or on demand. The entry nfsserver:/home /home nfs defaults 0 0 indicates that the /home directory on the local server is mounted from the /home directory on a remote server called nfsserver using the NFS protocol. However, the df -h /home command shows that the /home directory is actually mounted from a local partition /dev/sda2, which may not contain the user’s files. This means that the NFS mount failed or was overridden by another mount. To resolve the issue, the technician should attempt to unmount the local partition using umount nfsserver:/home, which will detach the /home directory from /dev/sda2. Then, the technician should try to mount the NFS share again using mount /home, which will attach the /home directory to nfsserver:/home according to the /etc/fstab entry12. Creating a new directory (A) or removing an existing one © would not help, as they would not affect the mount point. Mounting /home (D) without unmounting it first would not work, asit would result in an error that the mount point is busy3. References: 1 https://askubuntu.com/questions/374870/home-directory-not-
being-created 2 https://www.techrepublic.com/article/how-to-properly-automount-a-drive-in-
ubuntu-linux/ 3 https://serverfault.com/questions/587855/cannot-find-home-directory-on- linux-server

NEW QUESTION 17
A server administrator is configuring a new server that will hold large amounts of information. The server will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. Which of the following server roles will the administrator MOST likely need to install?

• A. Messaging
• B. Application
• C. Print
• D. Database

Answer: D

Explanation:
Few people are expected to use the database at the same time and users don’t need to customize the design of the database.
Reference:https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/ways-to-share-an-access-desktop-database-03822632-da43-4d8f-ba2a-68da245a0446
The server role that the administrator will most likely need to install for a server that will hold large amounts of information and will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time is database. A database is a collection of structured data that can be stored, queried, manipulated, and analyzed using various methods and tools. A database server is a server that hosts one or more databases and provides access to them over a network. A database server can handle large amounts of information and support concurrent requests from multiple users or applications.

NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?

• A. Service-level agreement
• B. Disaster recovery plan
• C. Business impact analysis
• D. Business continuity plan

Answer: B

Explanation:
A disaster recovery plan would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines the steps and procedures to recover from a major disruption of IT services caused by natural or man-made disasters, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc. A disaster recovery plan typically includes:
✑ A list of critical IT assets and resources that need to be protected and restored
✑ A list of roles and responsibilities of IT staff and stakeholders involved in the recovery process
✑ A list of backup and recovery strategies and tools for data, applications, servers, networks, etc.
✑ A list of communication channels and methods for notifying users, customers, vendors, etc.
✑ A list of testing and validation methods for ensuring the functionality and integrity of restored systems
✑ A list of metrics and criteria for measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the recovery process
A disaster recovery plan helps IT organizations to minimize downtime, data loss, and financial impact of a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as quickly as possible.

NEW QUESTION 19
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