Download CompTIA SK0-005 Exam Topics Online

NEW QUESTION 1
A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?

• A. 21
• B. 22
• C. 23
• D. 443

Answer: B

Explanation:
The technician should use port 22 to configure a server that requires secure remote access. Port 22 is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that
allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). SSH encrypts both the authentication and data transmission between the client and the server, preventing eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. SSH can be used to perform various tasks on a server remotely, such as configuration, administration, maintenance, troubleshooting, etc.

NEW QUESTION 2
A startup company needs to set up an initial disaster recovery site. The site must be cost- effective and deployed quickly. Which of the following sites should the company set up?

• A. Hot
• B. Cold
• C. Colocated
• D. Warm

Answer: B

Explanation:
A cold site is a backup facility with little or no hardware equipment installed. A cold site is the most cost-effective option among the three disaster recovery sites. However, due to the fact that a cold site doesn’t have any pre-installed equipment, it takes a lot of time to properly set it up so as to fully resume business operations1.
References = 1: Disaster Recovery Sites Comparison: Which one to Choose? - NAKIVO(https://www.nakivo.com/blog/overview-disaster-recovery-sites/)

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following relates to how much data loss a company agrees to tolerate in the event of a disaster?

• A. RTO
• B. MTBF
• C. PRO
• D. MTTR

Answer: A

Explanation:

Reference:https://www.druva.com/blog/understanding-rpo-and-rto/
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the maximum amount of time that a company agrees to tolerate in the event of a disaster before restoring its normal operations. The RTO is based on the business impact analysis (BIA) and the criticality of the processes and data involved. The RTO helps determine the backup and recovery strategies and resources needed to minimize downtime and data loss.
Reference:https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/recovery-time-objective

NEW QUESTION 4
An administrator reviews a new server that was received from a vendor and notes the OS has been installed to a two-drive array configured with RAID 0. Which of the following best describes what will happen if a drive in that array fails?

• A. The server will gracefully shut down.
• B. The server will immediately crash.
• C. The server will operate but in read-only mode.
• D. The server will continue to operate normally.

Answer: B

Explanation:
RAID 0 is a configuration that splits data evenly across two or more disks without parity or mirroring. This improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If a drive in a RAID 0 array fails, the data on the array becomes inaccessible and the server will immediately crash. The other options are not applicable to RAID 0. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, configure RAID using best practices.

NEW QUESTION 5
Users ate experiencing issues when trying to access resources on multiple servers. The servers are virtual and run on an ESX server. A systems administrator is investigating but is unable to connect to any of the virtual servers. When the administrator connects to the host, a purple screen with while letters appears. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the administrator perform FIRST?

• A. Check the power supplies
• B. Review the log files.
• C. Reinstall the ESX server.
• D. Reseat the processors.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A purple screen with white letters on an ESX server indicates a kernel panic, which is a fatal error that causes the system to crash and stop functioning3. The first troubleshooting step that an administrator should perform is to review the log files, which may contain information about the cause of the error, such as hardware failures, software bugs, or configuration issues4. Checking the power supplies (A) may not be relevant, as the system is still displaying a screen. Reinstalling the ESX server © or reseating the processors (D) are drastic measures that may result in data loss or further damage, and should only be attempted after ruling out other possible causes. References: 3
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/10145084 https://www.altaro.com/vmware/vmware-esxi-purple-screen-death/

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be BEST described as the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage?

• A. SLA
• B. MTBF
• C. RTO
• D. MTTR

Answer: C

Explanation:
The term that best describes the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage is RTO. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable downtime for an application, system, or process after a disaster or disruption. RTO helps determine the level of urgency and resources required for restoring normal business operations. RTO is usuallymeasured in minutes, hours, or days, depending on the criticality and impact of the service.
Reference:
https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/recovery-time-objective-RTO

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an architectural reinforcement that is used to attempt to conceal the exterior of an organization?

• A. Fencing
• B. Bollards
• C. Camouflage
• D. Reflective glass

Answer: C

Explanation:
Camouflage is an architectural reinforcement that is used to attempt to conceal the exterior of an organization. Camouflage is a technique of blending in with the surroundings or disguising the appearance of a building or facility to make it less noticeable or identifiable. Camouflage can reduce the visibility and attractiveness of a target for potential attackers or intruders. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, apply physical security methods to a server.

NEW QUESTION 8
A server administrator needs to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used to restore the share as quickly as possible. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

• A. Copy the fileshare to an LTO-4 tape drive
• B. Configure a new incremental backup job for the fileshare
• C. Create an additional partition and move a copy of the fileshare
• D. Create a snapshot of the fileshare

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best solution to keep a copy of an important fileshare that can be used to restore the share as quickly as possible is to create a snapshot of the fileshare. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a file system or a volume that captures the state and data of the fileshare at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the fileshare after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the fileshare to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

NEW QUESTION 9
Hackers recently targeted a company with an attack that resulted in a system breach, which compromised the organization's data. Because of the system breach, the administrator had to bypass normal change management procedures. Which of the following change management activities was necessary?

• A. Cancelled change request
• B. Change request postponement
• C. Emergency change request
• D. Privilege change request
• E. User permission change request

Answer: C

Explanation:
An emergency change request is a type of change management activity that is used to address urgent issues that pose a significant risk to the organization, such as a system breach. An emergency change request requires immediate action and approval, and it may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as testing, documentation, or stakeholder communication12.
References = 1: Change Management Plans: A Definitive Guide -Indeed(https://www.indeed.com/career-advice/career-development/change-management- activities) 2: The 10 Best Change Management Activities-Connecteam(https://connecteam.com/top-10-change-management-activities/)

NEW QUESTION 10
Users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet. The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. Which of the following is most likely causing the internet issue?

• A. THe DHCP exclusion needs to be removed.
• B. The DHCP scope is full.
• C. The DHCP scope options are misconfigured.
• D. The DHCP lease times are too short.
• E. The DHCP reservations need to be configured.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the internet issue is B. The DHCP scope is full.
A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to DHCP clients on a network. A DHCP scope has a start address and an end address, and it can also have some excluded addresses that are not available for lease. A DHCP scope can have various options, such as subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc., that are applied to the DHCP clients along with the IP address. A DHCP scope also has a lease time, which is the duration that a DHCP client can use an IP address before renewing it or releasing it. A DHCP scope can have reservations, which are fixed IP addresses that are assignedto specific DHCP clients based on their MAC addresses12
If a DHCP scope is full, it means that there are no more IP addresses available for lease in the scope. This can happen if the number of DHCP clients exceeds the number of IP addresses in the scope, or if the lease time is too long and the IP addresses are not released or reused frequently enough. If a DHCP scope is full, any new or existing DHCP clients that request an IP address from the DHCP server will not receive one, and they will not be able to access the network or the internet12
In this scenario, users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet. The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. This indicates that the DHCP scope is full, and that removing the old leases frees up some IP addresses for lease in the scope. Therefore, option B is the most likely cause of the internet issue.

NEW QUESTION 11
Hackers recently targeted a company with an attack that resulted in a system breach, which compromised the organization's data. Because of the system breach, the administrator had to bypass normal change management procedures. Which of the following change management activities was necessary?

• A. Cancelled change request
• B. Change request postponement
• C. Emergency change request
• D. Privilege change request
• E. User permission change request

Answer: C

Explanation:
An emergency change request is a type of change request that is initiated in response to an urgent situation, such as a system breach, that requires immediate action to restore normal operations or prevent further damage. An emergency change request may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as approval, testing, or documentation, in order to expedite the implementation of the change. However, an emergency change request should still follow the basic steps of change management, such as identification, analysis, planning, execution, and evaluation, and should be reviewed and documented after the change is completed.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 11: Change Management, page 443.

NEW QUESTION 12
A storage administrator needs to implement SAN-based shared storage that can transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection. Which of the following connectivity options would BEST meet this requirement?

• A. Fibre Channel
• B. FCoE
• C. iSCSI
• D. eSATA

Answer: A

Explanation:
Fibre Channel is a connectivity option that can transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection for SAN-based shared storage. Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology that provides reliable and secure data transfer between servers and storage devices. Fibre Channel uses optical fiber cables to connect devices and supports various topologies and protocols. FCoE is another connectivity option that uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet, which encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet packets. FCoE can also transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection, but it requires a converged network adapter (CNA) and a lossless Ethernet network. iSCSI is another connectivity option that uses SCSI commands over IP networks, which can use either copper or optical cables. iSCSI can transmit at 10Gb or 40Gb over an optical connection, but it has higher latency and lower performance than Fibre Channel. eSATA is another connectivity option that uses SATA commands over external cables, which are usually copper. eSATA can transmit at 6Gb over a copper connection, but it has limited cable length and device support compared
to Fibre Channel. References:
✑ https://www.ibm.com/topics/storage-area-network
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1369/fibre-channel-fc
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1368/fibre-channel-over-ethernet-fcoe
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1367/internet-small-computer-system- interface-iscsi
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1366/external-serial-advanced-technology- attachment-esata

NEW QUESTION 13
A server administrator is installing a new server on a manufacturing floor. Because the server is publicly accessible, security requires the server to undergo hardware hardening. Which of the following actions should the administrator take?

• A. Close unneeded ports.
• B. Disable unused services.
• C. Set a BIOS password.
• D. Apply driver updates.

Answer: C

Explanation:
An action that the administrator should take to harden the hardware of a new server is to set a BIOS password. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that initializes the hardware components and settings of a system before loading the operating system. BIOS password is a security feature that requires a user to enter a password before accessing or modifying the BIOS settings or booting up the system. By setting a BIOS password, the administrator can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from changing the hardware configuration or boot order of the server.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.1, Objective 5.1

NEW QUESTION 14
The accounting department needs more storage and wants to retain the current data for quick read-write access. The accounting server does not have any internet drive bays available to keep both disks however the server does have USB 3 0 and eSATA ports available. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish the department's goals?

• A. Copy the existing data to an external USB 3 0 enclosure.
• B. Place the existing data on a DVD and use the internal DVD-ROM drive.
• C. Transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure.
• D. Move the existing data to a ne
• E. larger internal hard drive.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to accomplish the department’s goals is to transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure, which is a device that connects an external hard drive to a computer using an eSATA port. This will allow the accounting department to retain the current data for quick read-write access, as eSATA provides high-speed data transfer rates and supports hot-plugging. Unlike USB 3.0, eSATA does not share bandwidth with other devices, which can improve performance and reliability. Verified References: [eSATA vs USB 3.0]

NEW QUESTION 15
The management team has mandated the use of data-at-rest encryption for all data. Which of the following forms of encryption best achieves this goal?

• A. Drive
• B. Database
• C. Folder
• D. File

Answer: A

Explanation:
Drive encryption is a form of encryption that best achieves the goal of data-at-rest encryption for all data. Drive encryption encrypts the entire hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. This prevents unauthorized access to the data if the drive is lost or stolen. Database, folder, and file encryption are forms of encryption that only encrypt specific data sets, not all data. References: [CompTIA Server+Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.3: Given a scenario involving a security threat/vulnerability/risk, implement appropriate mitigation techniques.

NEW QUESTION 16
An organization recently experienced power outages. The administrator noticed the server did not have enough time to shut down properly. After the outages, the administrator had additional batteries installed in the UPS. Which of the following best describes the solution the administrator implemented?

• A. The solution reduced shutdown time.
• B. The solution improved load balancing,
• C. The solution increased power out.
• D. The solution extended runtime.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly. References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.4, Objective 1.4

NEW QUESTION 17
A company uses a hot-site, disaster-recovery model. Which of the following types of data replication is required?

• A. Asynchronous
• B. Incremental
• C. Application consistent
• D. Constant

Answer: D

Explanation:
The type of data replication that is required for a hot-site disaster recovery model is constant. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has fully operational IT infrastructure and equipment that can take over the primary site’s functions immediately in case of a disaster or disruption. A hot site requires constant data replication between the primary site and the hot site to ensure that the data is up-to-date and consistent. Constant data replication means that any changes made to the data at the primary site are immediately copied to the hot site without any delay or lag.

NEW QUESTION 18
An administrator receives an alert stating a S.MAR.T. error has been detected. Which of the following should the administrator run FIRST to determine the issue?

• A. A hard drive test
• B. A RAM test
• C. A power supply swap
• D. A firmware update

Answer: A

Explanation:
A S.M.A.R.T. error is an indication of a potential failure of a hard drive.
S.M.A.R.T. stands for Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology and it is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives. A hard drive test can help diagnose the issue and determine if the drive needs to be replaced.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam- objectives (Objective 1.1)

NEW QUESTION 19
......