Top Tips Of Rebirth SK0-005 Simulations

NEW QUESTION 1
An analyst is planning a new point-to-point Ethernet connection between a university campus and a newly acquired space downtown that is about 5mi (8km) away. The analyst would like the fastest possible connection speed. Which of the following would best meet the analyst's needs?

• A. 1000BASE-LX 1Gb single-mode plenum fiber connection
• B. 10GBASE-T 10Gb copper plenum Ethernet connection
• C. 1000BASE-T 1Gb copper non-plenum Ethernet connection
• D. 10GBASE-SR 10Gb multimode plenum fiber connection

Answer: A

Explanation:
A 1000BASE-LX 1Gb single-mode plenum fiber connection would best meet the analyst’s needs for a new point-to-point Ethernet connection between a university campus and a newly acquired space downtown that is about 5mi (8km) away. A 1000BASE-LX is a type of Ethernet standard that supports data transmission at 1 gigabit per second over single- mode fiber cables using long wavelength lasers. A single-mode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to propagate through it. A single-mode fiber cable can transmit data over long distances at high speeds, but it requires more expensive transceivers and connectors than multimode fiber cables. A plenum fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a special coating that prevents the spread of fire or toxic fumes in case of burning. A plenum fiber cable is suitable for installation in plenum spaces, which are areas used for air circulation in buildings, such as above ceilings or below floors. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario involving server networking issues (e.g., network interface card failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician needs to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server. The server has SD card slots, a SAS controller, and a SATA controller, and it is attached to a NAS. On which of the following drive types should the technician install the hypervisor?

• A. SD card
• B. NAS drive
• C. SATA drive
• D. SAS drive

Answer: D

Explanation:
The technician should install the Type 1 hypervisor on a SAS drive. A Type 1 hypervisor is a layer of software that runs directly on top of the physical hardware and creates virtual machines that share the hardware resources. A Type 1 hypervisor requires fast and reliable storage for optimal performance and stability. A SAS drive is a type of hard disk drive that uses Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) as its interface protocol. SAS drives offer high speed, low latency, and high reliability compared to other types of drives, such as SD cards, NAS drives, or SATA drives. SD cards are flash memory cards that offer low cost and portability but have low speed, low capacity, and low durability. NAS drives are network-attached storage devices that offer high capacity and easy access but have high latency and low reliability due to network dependency. SATA drives are hard disk drives that use Serial ATA (SATA) as their interface protocol. SATA drives offer moderate speed, moderate cost, and moderate reliability but have lower performance and durability than SAS drives.

NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

• A. Overwrite the backups
• B. Clone the configuration
• C. Run a restore test
• D. Check the media integrity

Answer: C

Explanation:
The action that the server administrator should take once a new backup scheme has been configured is to run a restore test. A restore test is a process of verifying that the backup data can be successfully recovered and restored to its original location or a different location. A restore test can help ensure that the backup scheme is working properly, that the backup data is valid and consistent, and that there are no errors or issues during the recovery process. A restore test should be performed periodically and after any changes to the backup configuration or environment.

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following licensing models was created by software companies in response to the increasing density of processors?

• A. Per-instance
• B. Per-server
• C. per-user
• D. per-core

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. per-core.
The per-core licensing model was created by software companies in response to the
increasing density of processors. This model is used for software that runs on servers with multi-core processors, and the licensing fee is based on the number of cores.This way, the software vendors can charge more for software that runs on servers with more processing power1

NEW QUESTION 5
An administrator is troubleshooting a RAID issue in a failed server. The server reported a drive failure, and then it crashed and would no longer boot. There are two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAIO 0 set tor the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data. Which of the following failure scenarios MOST likely occurred?

• A. A drive failed in the OS array.
• B. A drive failed and then recovered in the data array.
• C. A drive failed in both of the arrays.
• D. A drive failed in the data array.

Answer: A

Explanation:
If a server has two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAID 0 set for the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data, then the most likely failure scenario that caused the server to crash and not boot is that a drive failed in the OS array. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. RAID 0 offers high performance but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 10 is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping with parity. RAID 10 offers high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 can tolerate up to one drive failure per mirrored pair without losing data or functionality.References:https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-0/ https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-10/

NEW QUESTION 6
A security technician generated a public/private key pair on a server. The technician needs to copy the key pair to another server on a different subnet. Which of the following is the most secure method to copy the keys?
✑ HTTP

• A. FTP
• B. SCP
• C. USB

Answer: C

Explanation:
SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows users to securely transfer files between servers using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption. SCP encrypts both the data and the authentication information, preventing unauthorized access, interception, ormodification of the files1. SCP also preserves the file attributes, such as permissions, timestamps, and ownership2.

NEW QUESTION 7
A company recently implemented VolP across a multicampus environment with ten locations. The company uses many network technologies, including fiber, copper, and wireless. Users calling between three of the locations have reported that voices sound strange. Which of the following should be monitored to narrow down the issue?

• A. Disk IOPS
• B. CPU utilization
• C. RAM utilization
• D. Network latency

Answer: D

Explanation:
Network latency is the measure of delay in data transmission over a network. It can affect the quality of voice over IP (VoIP) calls by causing echo, jitter, or distortion.
Network latencycan be caused by various factors such as network congestion, distance, routing, or bandwidth. To monitor network latency, you can use tools such as ping, traceroute, or network analyzers.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 237.

NEW QUESTION 8
A server administrator needs to ensure all Window-based servers within a data center have RDP disabled. There are thousands of servers performing various roles. Which of the following is the best way to meet this requirement?

• A. Run chkconfig ——1eve1 345 RDP off.
• B. Create a PowerSheII script to disable the RDP service.
• C. Run chkconfig —— list RDP.
• D. Create a Bash shell script to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
• E. Create a GPO to disable the Windows Remote Management service.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to meet this requirement is to create a PowerShell script to disable the RDP service on all Windows-based servers within a data center. PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line tool that can be used to automate tasks and manage Windows systems remotely. A PowerShell script can use cmdlets (commands) and parameters to perform actions on multiple servers at once, such as disabling a service or changing a configuration setting. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a service that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. Disabling RDP can improve security by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the servers.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3; Chapter 7, Lesson 7.1, Objective 7.1

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate scripting language to use for a logon script for a Linux box?

• A. VBS
• B. Shell
• C. Java
• D. PowerShell
• E. Batch

Answer: B

Explanation:
Shell is the most appropriate scripting language to use for a logon script for a Linux box. Shell is a generic term for a command-line interpreter that allows users to interact with the operating system by typing commands and executing scripts. Shell scripts are files that contain a series of commands and instructions that can be executed by a shell. Shell scripts are commonly used for automating tasks, such as logon scripts that run when a user logs on to a system. There are different types of shells available for Linux systems, such as Bash, Ksh, Zsh, etc., but they all share a similar syntax and functionality.

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following backup types should be chosen for database servers?

• A. Differential
• B. Incremental
• C. Synthetic full
• D. Open file

Answer: C

Explanation:
A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a new full backup without accessing the source data. This type of backup is suitable for database servers, as it reduces the backup window, minimizes the impact on the server performance, and provides faster recovery time. Verified References: [Synthetic Full Backup]

NEW QUESTION 11
An organization purchased six new 4TB drives for a server. An administrator is tasked with creating an efficient RAID given the minimum disk space requirement of 19TBs. Which of the following should the administrator choose to get the most efficient use of space?

• A. RAID 1
• B. RAID 5
• C. RAID 6
• D. RAID 10

Answer: B

Explanation:
RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with parity. It requires a minimum of three disks and can handle one disk failure. RAID 5 distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, which improves the read performance and reduces the write penalty. The capacity of a RAID 5 array is (N-1) times the size of the smallest disk, where N is the number of disks in the array. Therefore, for six 4TB disks, the capacity of a RAID 5 array would be (6-1) x 4TB = 20TB, which meets the minimum disk space requirement of 19TB. RAID 5 also has the leastamount of disk space lost to RAID overhead among the options, as it only uses onedisk’s worth of space for parity

NEW QUESTION 12
A server administrator deployed a new product that uses a non-standard port for web access on port 8443. However, users are unable to access the new application. The server administrator checks firewall rules and determines 8443 is allowed. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?

• A. Intrusion detection is blocking the port.
• B. The new application's DNS entry is incorrect.
• C. The application should be changed to use port 443.
• D. The core switch has a network issue.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A DNS entry is a record that maps a domain name to an IP address. If the DNS entry for the new application is incorrect, users will not be able to resolve the domain name to the correct IP address and port number. This will prevent them from accessing the application, even if the firewall rules allow port 8443. To fix this issue, the server administrator should verify and update the DNS entry for the new application.
References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 230.

NEW QUESTION 13
A server administrator must respond to tickets within a certain amount of time. The server administrator needs to adhere to the:

• A. BIA.
• B. RTO.
• C. MTTR.
• D. SLA.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The server administrator needs to adhere to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) when responding to tickets within a certain amount of time. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the quality, availability, and responsibilities of the service. An SLA may specify the response time for tickets, as well as other metrics such as uptime, performance, security, and backup frequency.Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/service-level-agreements

NEW QUESTION 14
An administrator is investigating a physical server mat will not Boot into the OS. The server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array. The server passes POST, out the OS does not load. The administrator verities the CPU and RAM are Doth seated correctly and checks the dual power supplies. The administrator then verifies all the BIOS settings are correct and connects a bootable USB drive in the server, and the OS loads correctly. Which of the following is causing the issue?

• A. The page file is too small.
• B. The CPU has failed.
• C. There are multiple failed hard drives.
• D. There are mismatched RAM modules.
• E. RAID 5 requires four drives

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more. If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more.
References:https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-5/

NEW QUESTION 15
A global organization keeps personnel application servers that are local to each country. However, a security audit shows these application servers are accessible from sites in other countries. Which of the following hardening techniques should the organization use to restrict access to only sites that are in the same country?

• A. Configure a firewall
• B. Close the unneeded ports
• C. Install a HIDS
• D. Disable unneeded services.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Monitors Network Traffic Reference:https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/benefits-of-firewall

NEW QUESTION 16
A data center employee shows a driver's license to enter the facility Once the employee enters, the door immediately doses and locks, triggering a scale that then weighs the employee before granting access to another locked door. This is an example of.

• A. mantrap.
• B. a bollard
• C. geofencing
• D. RFID.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A mantrap is a security device that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second one opens. A mantrap can be used to control access to a data center by verifying the identity and weight of the person entering. A bollard is a sturdy post that prevents vehicles from entering a restricted area. Geofencing is a technology that uses GPS or RFID to create a virtual boundary around a location and trigger an action when a device crosses it. RFID is a technology that uses radio waves to identify and track objects or people. References:
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/16293/mantrap
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1437/bollard
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/23961/geofencing
✑ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/506/radio-frequency-identification-rfid

NEW QUESTION 17
An administrator is only able to log on to a server with a local account. The server has been successfully joined to the domain and can ping other servers by IP address. Which of the following locally defined settings is MOST likely misconfigured?

• A. DHCP
• B. WINS
• C. DNS
• D. TCP

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the most likely misconfigured setting because DNS is the service that resolves hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. If the DNS server is incorrect or unreachable, the administrator will not be able to log on to the server with a domain account because the server will not be able to authenticate with the domain controller.
References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/networking/dns-troubleshooting

NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following often-overlooked parts of the asset life cycle can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to Pll exposure?

• A. Usage
• B. End-of-life
• C. Procurement
• D. Disposal

Answer: D

Explanation:
Disposal is the part of the asset life cycle that can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to PII exposure. PII stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. PII exposure is the unauthorized access or disclosure of PII, which can result in identity theft, fraud, or other harms to the individuals whose data is compromised. Disposal is the process of getting rid of an asset that is no longer needed or useful, such as a server, a hard drive, or a mobile device. If the disposal is not done properly, the PII stored on the asset may still be accessible or recoverable by unauthorized parties, such as hackers, thieves, or competitors. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices for secure disposal of assets that contain PII, such as wiping, encrypting, shredding, or physically destroying the data storage media

NEW QUESTION 19
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