All About Verified SK0-005 Actual Test

NEW QUESTION 1
A technician noted the RAID hard drives were functional while troubleshooting a motherboard failure. The technician installed a spare motherboard with similar specifications and used the original components. Which of the following should the technician do to restore operations with minimal downtime?

• A. Reinstall the OS and programs.
• B. Configure old drives to RAID.
• C. Reconfigure the RAID.
• D. Install from backup.

Answer: C

Explanation:
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple hard drives into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or capacity. RAID can be implemented by hardware, software, or a combination of both. Hardware RAID uses a dedicated controller to manage the RAID array, while software RAID uses the operating system or a driver to do the same1.
In this scenario, the technician noted that the RAID hard drives were functional while troubleshooting a motherboard failure. This means that the data on the drives was not corrupted or lost. However, the technician installed a spare motherboard with similar specifications and used the original components. This means that the new motherboard may not have the same RAID configuration as the old one, or it may not recognize the existing RAID array at all. Therefore, the technician needs to reconfigure the RAID in order to restore operations with minimal downtime.

NEW QUESTION 2
When configuring networking on a VM, which of the following methods would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address?

• A. Bridged
• B. NAT
• C. Host only
• D. vSwitch

Answer: B

Explanation:
The method that would allow multiple VMs to share the same host IP address is NAT. NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows multiple devices to use a single public IP address by mapping their private IP addresses to different port numbers. NAT can be used for VM networking to enable multiple VMs on the same host to access the internet or other networks using the host’s IP address. NAT can also provide security benefits by hiding the VMs’ private IP addresses from external networks.
Reference: https://www.virtualbox.org/manual/ch06.html

NEW QUESTION 3
Which ofthefollowingshouldatechnician verify FIRST before decommissioning and wipinga file server?

• A. Themedia destructionmethod
• B. Therecycling poke?
• C. Asset management documentation
• D. Non-utilization

Answer: D

Explanation:
The first thing that a technician should verify before decommissioning and wiping a file server is non-utilization, which means that no one is using or accessing the server or its data. This can be done by checking logs, monitoring network traffic, or contacting users or stakeholders. Non-utilization ensures that decommissioning and wiping will not cause any data loss or disruption to business operations. Verified References: [Server Decommissioning Checklist]

NEW QUESTION 4
A systems administrator has noticed performance degradation on a company file server, and one of the disks on it has a solid amber light. The administrator logs on to the disk utility and sees the array is rebuild ing. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT once the rebuild is finished?

• A. Restore the server from a snapshot.
• B. Restore the server from backup.
• C. Swap the drive and initialize the disk.
• D. Swap the drive and initialize the array.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The next action that the administrator should take once the rebuild is finished is to swap the drive and initialize the disk. This is to replace the faulty disk that has a solid amber light, which indicates a predictive failure or a SMART error. Initializing the disk will prepare it for use by the RAID controller and add it to the array. The administrator should also monitor the array status and performance after swapping the drive.Reference:https://www.salvagedata.com/how-to-rebuild-a-failed-raid/

NEW QUESTION 5
A server administrator needs to configure a server on a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses. Which of the following subnet addresses will be the MOST efficient for this network?

• A. 255.255.255.0
• B. 255.255.255.128
• C. 255.255.255.224
• D. 255.255.255.252

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most efficient subnet address for a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses is 255.255.255.224. This subnet mask corresponds to a /27 prefix length, which means that 27 bits are used for the network portion and 5 bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. With 5 bits for hosts, there are 2^5 - 2 = 30 possible host addresses per subnet, which meets the requirement. The other options are either too large or too small for the network size.
Reference:https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/subnet- mask

NEW QUESTION 6
A server technician notices a server is very low on disk space. Upon inspecting the disk utilization, the technician discovers server logs are taxing up a large amount of space. There is no central log server. Which of the following would help free up disk space?

• A. Log rotation
• B. Log shipping
• C. Log alerting
• D. Log analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Log rotation is a process that periodically renames, compresses, and deletes old log files to free up disk space and keep log files manageable. Log rotation can be configured using tools such as logrotate or cron on Linux systems, or using Windows Task Scheduler or PowerShell scripts on Windows systems. Log rotation can also help with log analysis and troubleshooting by making it easier to find relevant information in smaller and more recent log files. References: https://www.mezmo.com/learn-log-management/what-is-log-rotation-how-does-it-workhttps://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows- server/administration/windows-commands/logman

NEW QUESTION 7
An administrator is configuring a server to communicate with a new storage array. To do so, the administrator enters the WWPN of the new array in the server’s storage configuration. Which of the following technologies is the new connection using?

• A. iSCSI
• B. eSATA
• C. NFS
• D. FcoE

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26996_01/E18549/html/BABHBFHA.html

NEW QUESTION 8
A security administrator ran a port scanning tool against a virtual server that is hosting a secure website. A list of open ports was provided as documentation. The management team has requested that non-essential ports be disabled on the firewall. Which of the following ports must remain open?

• A. 25
• B. 443
• C. 3389
• D. 8080

Answer: B

Explanation:
The port that must remain open for a secure website is port 443. Port 443 is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), which is an extension of HTTP that encrypts and authenticates the communication between a web server and a web browser. HTTPS ensures that the data transmitted over the web is protected from eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. Therefore, port 443 must remain open for a secure website to function properly.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.2, Objective 2.2

NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator is troubleshooting a failed NIC in an application server. The server uses DHCP to get all IP configurations, and the server must use a specific IP address. The administrator replaces the NIC, but then the server begins to receive a different and incorrect IP address. Which of the following will enable the server to get the proper IP address?

• A. Modifying the MAC used on the DHCP reservation
• B. Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address
• C. Modifying the WWNN used on the DHCP reservation
• D. Updating the NIC to use the correct WWNN

Answer: A

Explanation:
A DHCP reservation is a way to assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address, which is a unique identifier for each network interface card (NIC). When the administrator replaced the NIC, the MAC address of the server changed, and the DHCP server no longer recognized it as the same device. Therefore, the DHCP server assigned a different IP address to the server, which was incorrect for the application. To fix this problem, the administrator needs to modify the DHCP reservation to use the new MAC address of the NIC, so that the server can get the proper IP address.
A WWNN (World Wide Node Name) is a unique identifier for a Fibre Channel node, which is a device that can communicate over a Fibre Channel network. A WWNN is not related to DHCP or IP addresses, and it is not used for DHCP reservations. Therefore, options B and D are incorrect.
Updating the local hosts file with the correct IP address (option C) is also incorrect, because it does not solve the problem of getting the correct IP address from the DHCP server. The hosts file is a local file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, and it is used to override DNS queries. However, it does not affect how the DHCP server assigns IP addresses to devices. Moreover, updating the hosts file manually on every device that needs to communicate with the server is not a scalable or efficient solution.
References:
✑ How to reserve IP Address in DHCP Server - Ask Ubuntu
✑ Static IP vs DHCP Reservation - The Tech Journal
✑ How to Configure DHCP Server Reservation in Windows … - ITIngredients

NEW QUESTION 10
A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

• A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
• B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
• C. The local hosts file is blank
• D. The server is not joined to the domain

Answer: D

Explanation:
The server is not joined to the domain is causing the issue. A domain is a logical grouping of computers that share a common directory database and security policy on a network. Active Directory is a Microsoft technology that provides domain services for Windows- based computers. To use Active Directory credentials to log on to a server, the server must be joined to the domain that hosts Active Directory. If the server is not joined to the domain, it will not be able to authenticate with Active Directory and will only accept local accounts for logon. To join a server to a domain, the administrator must have a valid domain account with sufficient privileges and must know the name of the domain controller that hosts Active Directory.

NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following BEST measures now much downtime an organization can tolerate Curing an unplanned outage?

• A. SLA
• B. BIA
• C. RTO
• D. MTTR

Answer: C

Explanation:
RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a measure of how much downtime an organization can tolerate during an unplanned outage. It is the maximum time allowed for restoring normal operations after a disaster. RTO is one of the key metrics for disaster recovery planning and testing. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract that defines the expected level of service and performance between a provider and a customer. BIA (Business Impact Analysis) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disaster on critical business functions and processes. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair) is a measure of how long it takes to fix a failed component or system. References: https://parachute.cloud/rto-vs-rpo/ https://www.techopedia.com/definition/13622/service- level-agreement-sla https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1032/business-impact-analysis- biahttps://www.techopedia.com/definition/8239/mean-time-to-repair-mttr

NEW QUESTION 12
A server administrator purchased a single license key to use for all the new servers that will be imaged this year. Which of the following MOST likely refers to the licensing type that will be used?

• A. Per socket
• B. Open-source
• C. Per concurrent user
• D. Volume

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is the most likely licensing type that will be used because volume licensing allows a single license key to be used for multiple installations of a software product. Volume licensing is typically used by organizations that need to deploy software to a large number of devices or users.References:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/licensing/licensing-programs/volume-licensing-programs

NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following life-cycle management phases deals with a server that is no longer in operation?

• A. End-of-life
• B. Disposal
• C. Usage
• D. Procurement

Answer: A

Explanation:
End-of-life is the phase of lifecycle management that deals with a server that is no longer in operation. End-of-life means that the server has reached the end of its useful life and is no longer supported by the manufacturer or the service provider. End-of-life may also imply that the serveris obsolete, incompatible, or inefficient for the current needs and standards1. End-of-life servers may be decommissioned, recycled, donated, or disposed of according to the organizational policies and environmental regulations

NEW QUESTION 14
A technician has moved a data drive from a new Windows server to an order Windows server. The hardware recognizes the drive, but the data is not visible to the OS. Which of the following is the MOST Likely cause of the issue?

• A. Thedisk uses GPT.
• B. Thepartition is formatted with ext4.
• C. The -partition is formatted with FAT32.
• D. Thedisk uses MBn.

Answer: A

Explanation:
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. However, GPT is not compatible with older versions of Windows, such as Windows XP or Windows Server 2003, which use MBR (Master Boot Record) as the partitioning scheme. If a disk uses GPT, it may not be recognized or accessible by an older Windows server. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]

NEW QUESTION 15
A systems administrator is trying to determine why users in the human resources department cannot access an application server. The systems administrator reviews the application logs but does not see any attempts by the users to access the application. Which of the following is preventing the users from accessing the application server?

• A. NAT
• B. ICMP
• C. VLAN
• D. NIDS

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of preventing the users from accessing the application server because a VLAN is a logical segmentation of a network that isolates traffic based on certain criteria. If the human resources department and the application server are on different VLANs, they will not be able to communicate with each other unless there is a router or a switch that can route between VLANs.References:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/inter-vlan-routing/41860-howto-L3-intervlanrouting.html

NEW QUESTION 16
A server technician is configuring the IP address on a newly installed server. The documented configuration specifies using an IP address of 10.20.10.15 and a default gateway of 10.20.10.254. Which of the following subnet masks would be appropriate for this setup?

• A. 255.255.255.0
• B. 255.255.255.128
• C. 255.255.255.240
• D. 255.255.255.254

Answer: A

Explanation:
The administrator should use a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 for this setup. A subnet mask is a binary number that defines how many bits of an IP address are used for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion. The network portion identifies the specific network that the IP address belongs to, while the host portion identifies the specific device within that network. The subnet mask is usually written in dotted decimal notation, where each octet represents eight bits of the binary number. A 1 in the binary number means that the corresponding bit in the IP address is part of the network portion, while a 0 means that it is part of the host portion. For example, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 means that the first 24 bits (three octets) of the IP address are used for the network portion and the last 8 bits (one octet) are used for the host portion. This subnet mask allows up to 254 hosts per network (2^8 - 2). In this case, the IP address of 10.20.10.15 and the default gateway of 10.20.10.254 belong to the same network of 10.20.10.0/24 (where /24 indicates the number of bits used for the network portion), which can be defined by using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following would be BEST to help protect an organization against social engineering?

• A. More complex passwords
• B. Recurring training and support
• C. Single sign-on
• D. An updated code of conduct to enforce social media

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to protect an organization against social engineering is to provide recurring training and support. Social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into divulging confidential information or performing malicious actions. Social engineering can take various forms, such as phishing emails, phone calls, impersonation, baiting, or quid pro quo. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and empower the employees to recognize and avoid common social engineering techniques and report any suspicious activities or incidents. Recurring training and support can help raise awareness and reinforce best practices among the employees.

NEW QUESTION 18
A technician is laying out a filesystem on a new Linux server. Which of the following tools would work BEST to allow the technician to increase a partition's size in the future without reformatting it?

• A. LVM
• B. DiskPart
• C. fdisk
• D. Format

Answer: A

Explanation:
LVM (Logical Volume Manager) is a tool that allows the technician to increase a partition’s size in the future without reformatting it on a Linux server. LVM creates logical volumes that can span across multiple physical disks or partitions and can be resized dynamically without losing data. LVM also provides other features such as snapshots, encryption, and RAID. DiskPart, fdisk, and Format are tools that can be used to partition and format disks, but they do not allow increasing a partition’s size without reformatting it. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/40702/how-to-manage-and- use-lvm-logical-volume-management-in-ubuntu/ https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using- windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/17001/how-to- format-a-usb-drive-in-ubuntu-using-gparted/

NEW QUESTION 19
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